Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

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Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Indicate the non-narcotic analgesic, which lacks an anti-inflammatory effect:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Paracetamol is a non-narcotic analgesic that lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, acting mainly on CNS COX for analgesia and fever reduction. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, metamizole has some anti-inflammatory action, and aspirin is a strong anti-inflammatory, making 'Paracetamol' correct.

Question 2 of 5

Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene derivative:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is D) Thiothixene, which is a thioxanthene derivative. Thiothixene is classified as a thioxanthene antipsychotic due to its chemical structure and pharmacological properties. Thioxanthenes are a specific subgroup of antipsychotic drugs that have a tricyclic structure with two benzene rings and a thiozine ring. Option A) Haloperidol is a butyrophenone antipsychotic, not a thioxanthene derivative. Butyrophenones have a different chemical structure compared to thioxanthenes. Option B) Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, which belongs to the dibenzodiazepine class. It does not fall under the thioxanthene derivative category. Option C) Chlorpromazine is a phenothiazine antipsychotic, not a thioxanthene derivative. Phenothiazines have a distinct chemical structure from thioxanthenes. Understanding the classification of antipsychotic drugs based on their chemical structures is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug selection, dosing, and potential side effects. Knowing the specific characteristics of thioxanthene derivatives helps in proper prescribing and monitoring of these medications in clinical practice.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following antipsychotic agents is preferable in patients with coronary and cerebrovascular disease?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In patients with coronary and cerebrovascular disease, the preferable antipsychotic agent is Haloperidol (option C). This is because Haloperidol has a lower risk of causing cardiovascular adverse effects compared to other antipsychotic agents. Chlorpromazine (option A) is not preferred in these patients due to its potential to cause significant hypotension, which can be detrimental in individuals with cardiovascular issues. Fluphenazine (option B) and Perphenazine (option D) also have a higher likelihood of causing cardiovascular side effects, making them less suitable choices for patients with coronary and cerebrovascular disease. Educationally, understanding the cardiovascular effects of different antipsychotic agents is crucial for safe medication administration in patients with underlying cardiovascular conditions. Healthcare providers need to be aware of the pharmacological profiles of these medications to make informed decisions that optimize patient safety and well-being.

Question 4 of 5

Indicate the second-generation heterocyclic drug:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Maprotiline, which is a second-generation heterocyclic drug. Maprotiline belongs to the tetracyclic antidepressants class of drugs and is commonly used in the treatment of depression. Imipramine (option B) is a first-generation tricyclic antidepressant, not a second-generation heterocyclic drug. It is used in the treatment of various psychiatric conditions, including depression and enuresis. Phenelzine (option C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which is a different class of antidepressant drugs compared to second-generation heterocyclic drugs like Maprotiline. Fluoxetine (option D) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is also a different class of antidepressant drugs compared to Maprotiline. Understanding the classification of antidepressant drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially in pharmacology practice. Knowing the differences between drug classes helps in selecting the most appropriate medication for patients based on their condition, comorbidities, and potential side effects. This knowledge is essential for safe and effective medication management in patients across the lifespan.

Question 5 of 5

The irreversible MAO inhibitors have a very high risk of developing:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, irreversible MAO inhibitors such as phenelzine and tranylcypromine pose a high risk of developing hypertensive reactions to tyramine ingested in food. This is because these medications inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase (MAO), which normally breaks down tyramine in the body. When MAO is inhibited, tyramine levels can rise, leading to hypertensive crisis characterized by severe hypertension, headache, palpitations, and potentially fatal cardiovascular complications. Option A, respiratory depression, is not typically associated with irreversible MAO inhibitors. Option B, cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression, while serious, are not the primary concern with these medications. Option D, potentially fatal agranulocytosis, is a rare but serious adverse effect associated with other drug classes like antithyroid medications, not specifically with irreversible MAO inhibitors. Educationally, understanding the specific risks and side effects of different drug classes is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about medication management. In the case of irreversible MAO inhibitors, recognizing the potential for hypertensive crises due to tyramine interactions is essential for safe prescribing and patient education.

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