Indicate the main claim for an ideal antidepressant agent:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The main claim for an ideal antidepressant agent should encompass all aspects mentioned in the choices. A faster onset of action ensures quicker relief for the patient. Fewer adverse effects reduce the burden on the patient. Lower toxicity in overdoses enhances safety. Therefore, D is correct as it combines these essential criteria for an ideal antidepressant. Options A, B, and C individually address important factors but do not cover the comprehensive requirements of an ideal antidepressant, making them incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Benzodiazepines. They are the drugs of choice for reversing withdrawal syndromes due to their ability to target the central nervous system and alleviate symptoms by acting on GABA receptors. Benzodiazepines help to reduce anxiety, seizures, and other withdrawal symptoms effectively. Neuroleptics (choice B) are not typically recommended for treating withdrawal symptoms as they may worsen certain symptoms. Antidepressants (choice C) are not the first-line treatment for reversing withdrawal syndromes as they mainly target mood disorders. Choice D is incorrect because not all the options are drugs of choice for reversing withdrawal syndromes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. 5-lipoxygenase is an enzyme involved in leukotriene synthesis. 2. Zileuton is a specific 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor. 3. Budesonide and Beclometazone are corticosteroids, not 5-lipoxygenase inhibitors. 4. Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer, not a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor. Summary: Choice C (Zileuton) is the correct answer as it directly inhibits 5-lipoxygenase, which is crucial in leukotriene production. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not 5-lipoxygenase inhibitors but belong to different classes of medications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis, crucial for red blood cell formation. 2. Megaloblastic anemia is characterized by large, immature red blood cells. 3. Folic acid deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia. 4. Therefore, folic acid supplementation is recommended for treating megaloblastic anemia. Summary: - Choice A is correct because folic acid is recommended for treating megaloblastic anemia due to its role in red blood cell formation. - Choice B is incorrect because folic acid is indeed recommended for megaloblastic anemia treatment. - Choice C is incorrect as it implies all choices are correct, which is not the case. - Choice D is incorrect as folic acid is recommended for megaloblastic anemia treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Quinidine. Quinidine is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug that works by blocking sodium channels, prolonging the action potential duration, and delaying repolarization in cardiac cells. This helps in treating atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. Sotalol (A) is a Class III antiarrhythmic drug, Propranolol (B) is a beta-blocker, and Verapamil (C) is a calcium channel blocker, not Class IA antiarrhythmics.