Indicate the irreversible MAO inhibitor,which is a hydrazide derivative:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Phenelzine. Phenelzine is an irreversible MAO inhibitor that irreversibly binds to and inhibits monoamine oxidase enzymes. This irreversible binding leads to a long-lasting inhibition of MAO activity. Moclobemide (A) is a reversible MAO inhibitor, while Selegiline (B) is a selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitor. Tranylcypramine (C) is a reversible MAO inhibitor. Therefore, Phenelzine is the only irreversible MAO inhibitor among the options provided.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Opioid withdrawal symptoms typically start 8-10 hours after the last dose due to the short half-life of opioids. This timing aligns with the onset of symptoms such as anxiety, sweating, and muscle aches. The other choices are incorrect. Choice B is false because the onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms does not occur immediately after the last dose. Choice C, All, is incorrect as it implies that all choices are correct, which is not the case. Choice D, Null, is also incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information regarding the onset of opioid withdrawal symptoms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because ketamine anesthesia is associated with cardiovascular stimulation due to its sympathomimetic effects. It also increases cerebral blood flow, oxygen consumption, and intracranial pressure. Additionally, disorientation, sensory and perceptual illusions, and vivid dreams can occur post-anesthesia due to its psychotomimetic properties. Choices A, B, and C individually do not fully encompass the range of effects associated with ketamine anesthesia, making D the correct choice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Prochlorperazine is a typical antipsychotic that also has antiemetic properties due to its dopamine receptor blocking activity. 2. Neuroleptics, like prochlorperazine, target dopamine receptors in the brain to alleviate symptoms. 3. Metoclopramide works by enhancing motility in the upper GI tract and has no direct relation to neuroleptics. 4. Nabilone is a synthetic cannabinoid used as an antiemetic, not related to neuroleptics. 5. Tropisetron is a serotonin receptor antagonist used as an antiemetic, not related to neuroleptics. Summary: Prochlorperazine is the correct answer as it shares the mechanism of action with neuroleptics by targeting dopamine receptors. Metoclopramide, nabilone, and tropisetron do not have this direct relationship with neuroleptics.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Aglycone is essential for cardiotonic action because it refers to the non-sugar component of a glycoside molecule that possesses pharmacological activity. In cardiotonic action, the aglycone part of the glycoside compound is responsible for the therapeutic effect on the heart, making choice C the correct answer. Plasma protein binding (choice A), half-life (choice B), and metabolism (choice D) do not directly involve the aglycone component in the context of this question.