Indicate the inhaled anesthetic,which causes the airway irritation:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Desflurane. Desflurane is known to cause airway irritation due to its pungent smell and irritant properties, leading to coughing and bronchospasms. This is because desflurane is a volatile anesthetic with a low blood-gas partition coefficient, causing rapid uptake and elimination, which can irritate the airway. A: Nitrous oxide is not known to cause airway irritation. It is a non-irritating gas, commonly used as an anesthetic in combination with other agents. B: Sevoflurane is a non-irritating anesthetic that is widely used in anesthesia practice. C: Halothane can cause hepatotoxicity but is not specifically associated with airway irritation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Abciximab. Abciximab is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor, which prevents platelet aggregation. It works by binding to the receptor and blocking the final common pathway of platelet aggregation. Aspirin (A) inhibits cyclooxygenase, Clopidogrel (B) and Ticlopidine (C) are P2Y12 ADP receptor inhibitors, not glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors. Abciximab (D) is the only drug among the choices that directly targets the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, None of the above. Nifedipine and Verapamil are calcium channel blockers used for hypertension and angina, not as bronchodilators. Nifedipine can even cause bronchoconstriction as a side effect. Therefore, they are not effective bronchodilators. A and B are incorrect choices.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for the correct answer (C - Enalapril): 1. Enalapril is a prodrug that requires conversion to its active form, enalaprilat, in the liver. 2. Enalaprilat has potent ACE inhibitory effects, making it the active metabolite responsible for the drug's therapeutic action. 3. The conversion process enhances the drug's bioavailability and ensures a consistent pharmacological response. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Labetalol is not converted to an active metabolite after absorption; it exerts its effects directly. B: Clonidine acts directly on alpha-2 adrenergic receptors without requiring conversion to an active form. D: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that does not need metabolic activation for its pharmacological effects.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Growth hormone. The posterior pituitary gland only secretes Vasopressin (A) and Oxytocin (B). Growth hormone (C) is actually secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, option C is incorrect. Option D is also incorrect as the posterior pituitary does secrete Vasopressin and Oxytocin.