Indicate the hypnotic drug which binds selectively to the BZ1 receptor subtype facilitating GABAergic inhibition:

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Question 1 of 5

Indicate the hypnotic drug which binds selectively to the BZ1 receptor subtype facilitating GABAergic inhibition:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a hypnotic drug that selectively binds to the BZ1 receptor subtype, which enhances the inhibitory function of the neurotransmitter GABA. This specific binding to the BZ1 receptor subtype results in sedative and hypnotic effects without significant anxiolytic or muscle relaxant properties. Incorrect Choices: A: Thiopental - Thiopental is a barbiturate that acts on GABA receptors but does not selectively bind to the BZ1 receptor subtype. C: Flurazepam - Flurazepam is a benzodiazepine that primarily acts on the BZ2 receptor subtype, not the BZ1 receptor subtype. D: Phenobarbital - Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that enhances GABAergic transmission but does not selectively bind to the BZ1 receptor subtype. In summary, Zolpidem is the correct answer because it specifically targets the

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Morphine. Morphine is a strong mu receptor agonist because it binds to and activates the mu opioid receptors in the central nervous system, leading to potent analgesic effects. Naloxone (A) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not an agonist. Pentazocine (C) is a mixed opioid receptor agonist/antagonist. Buprenorphine (D) is a partial mu receptor agonist with mixed antagonist properties. Therefore, the other choices do not fit the criteria of being a strong mu receptor agonist like morphine.

Question 3 of 5

Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because antidepressants primarily work by blocking the reuptake pumps of serotonin or norepinephrine, increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. This leads to enhanced neurotransmission and improved mood regulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the primary mechanism of action of antidepressants. Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors (A) is not the main mechanism, inhibition of storage of serotonin and epinephrine (B) is not how antidepressants work, and stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors (D) is not the primary mechanism for antidepressant effects.

Question 5 of 5

Indicate the CNS stimulant which is a piperidine derivative:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Meridil. Meridil is a CNS stimulant that is a piperidine derivative. Piperidine is a chemical structure that is present in the drug Meridil, making it the correct choice. Amphetamine (B) is not a piperidine derivative; it belongs to the phenethylamine class. Caffeine (C) is a xanthine derivative. Sydnophen (D) is not a piperidine derivative but a sympathomimetic amine. Therefore, based on the chemical structure and classification, Meridil is the only option that fits the criteria of being a piperidine derivative.

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