Indicate the ganglion-blocking drug, which can be taken orally for the treatment of hypertension?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mecamylamine. Mecamylamine is a ganglion-blocking drug that can be taken orally for hypertension. It blocks nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in autonomic ganglia, leading to decreased sympathetic tone and vasodilation, which helps reduce blood pressure. Scopolamine (B) is an anticholinergic drug used for motion sickness, trimethaphane (C) is a ganglion-blocking drug but not suitable for oral administration, and vecuronium (D) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used during surgery.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phentolamine. Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic antagonist that helps block the effects of excess catecholamines released by pheochromocytoma. It helps to control hypertension and other symptoms associated with pheochromocytoma. A: Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist, which would worsen hypertension in pheochromocytoma. B: Propranolol is a beta-blocker, which can lead to unopposed alpha-adrenergic effects and exacerbate hypertension in pheochromocytoma. D: Epinephrine is a catecholamine that would exacerbate symptoms in pheochromocytoma due to its stimulatory effects on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is preferred in patients with limited hepatic function because it undergoes minimal hepatic metabolism, making it less dependent on liver function for elimination. This reduces the risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity in patients with hepatic impairment. Amobarbital (B), Flurazepam (C), and Pentobarbital (D) are all barbiturates that are extensively metabolized in the liver. Therefore, they are not preferred in patients with limited hepatic function as their metabolism can be impaired, leading to increased drug levels and potential toxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lamotrigine is an antiepileptic drug that is effective in treating partial seizures, absence seizures, and myoclonic seizures. Therefore, the correct answer is D, "All of the above." It works by stabilizing neural membranes and inhibiting glutamate release. It is commonly used as a first-line treatment for various types of seizures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lamotrigine can indeed be used to treat all these seizure types based on its mechanism of action and clinical effectiveness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertensive emergency. When levodopa is combined with an inhibitor of both forms of monoamine oxidase, it can lead to an excessive buildup of catecholamines, causing a hypertensive crisis due to the potentiation of sympathetic effects. This can result in severe hypertension, which can lead to a hypertensive emergency characterized by organ damage and potentially life-threatening complications. Respiratory depression (choice A), acute psychotic reactions (choice C), and cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression (choice D) are not the main risks associated with the combined administration of levodopa and MAO inhibitors.