ATI RN
Chapter 25 Cardiovascular Drugs Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Indicate the benzodiazepine,which has the shortest elimination half-life:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Triazolam. Triazolam has a short elimination half-life, around 2-5 hours, due to its rapid metabolism. Quazepam (choice A) has a longer elimination half-life, around 39 hours. Diazepam (choice C) has a longer elimination half-life, around 20-100 hours. Clorazepate (choice D) has a longer elimination half-life, around 36-200 hours. In summary, Triazolam is the correct answer as it has the shortest elimination half-life compared to the other benzodiazepines listed.
Question 2 of 5
Choose the drug belonging to membranestabilizing agents:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium cromoglycate. Membrane-stabilizing agents stabilize cell membranes and prevent the release of inflammatory mediators. Sodium cromoglycate is a mast cell stabilizer that works by inhibiting the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances. Zileutin (A) is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, Zafirlucast (C) and Montelukast (D) are leukotriene receptor antagonists, which work by blocking the action of leukotrienes, not by stabilizing cell membranes.
Question 3 of 5
Tick the drug used in aplastic anemia:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epoetin alpha. Epoetin alpha is used in aplastic anemia to stimulate the production of red blood cells. In this condition, the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells. Epoetin alpha works by mimicking the action of erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. Now, let's analyze the other choices: A: Fercoven - This is not a drug commonly used in the treatment of aplastic anemia. B: Cyanocobalamin - This is a form of vitamin B12 and is not typically used to treat aplastic anemia. D: Folic acid - While folic acid may be used in certain types of anemia, it is not the primary drug used in the treatment of aplastic anemia. In summary, Epoetin alpha is the correct choice as it directly addresses the underlying issue of inadequate red blood cell production in aplastic an
Question 4 of 5
All of the following statements concerning the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in the treatment of heart failure are true EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. ACE inhibitors do not increase plasma cholesterol levels. ACE inhibitors improve hemodynamics by decreasing afterload, slow the progression of heart failure by preventing myocardial remodeling, and reduce secretion of aldosterone. Choice A is correct because ACE inhibitors reduce systemic vascular resistance, decreasing afterload. Choice C is correct because ACE inhibitors can prevent myocardial remodeling and slow the progression of heart failure. Choice D is correct because ACE inhibitors can reduce aldosterone secretion, leading to decreased sodium and water retention. Therefore, the incorrect statement among the choices is B.
Question 5 of 5
This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonidine. Clonidine acts on vasomotor centers in the central nervous system (CNS) by stimulating alpha-2 adrenergic receptors, leading to decreased sympathetic outflow, resulting in reduced peripheral vascular resistance and ultimately lowering blood pressure. Labetalol (A) is a non-selective beta and alpha blocker, Enalapril (C) is an ACE inhibitor, and Nifedipine (D) is a calcium channel blocker, all of which work by different mechanisms to reduce blood pressure compared to Clonidine.