Indicate the atypical antipsychotic drug:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clozapine. Clozapine is considered an atypical antipsychotic due to its unique mechanism of action targeting serotonin and dopamine receptors. It is commonly used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Haloperidol (A) is a typical antipsychotic. Thioridazine (C) and Thiothixene (D) are also typical antipsychotics. They primarily target dopamine receptors and are associated with more side effects compared to atypical antipsychotics like Clozapine.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Piracetam. Piracetam is a nootropic agent that has shown potential in improving cognitive functions and enhancing cerebral blood flow, making it beneficial for cerebral stroke treatment. Pantocrin (A) is a general stimulant, Sydnocarb (B) is primarily used for ADHD and narcolepsy, and Caffeine (D) is a CNS stimulant but lacks specific benefits for cerebral stroke treatment. In summary, Piracetam is the correct choice due to its specific effects on cerebral function and blood flow, while the other options are not tailored for stroke treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because overdoses of cocaine can lead to respiratory depression, arrhythmias, and seizures simultaneously, resulting in rapid fatality. Cocaine affects the central nervous system, causing respiratory depression and seizures, while also affecting the heart's electrical activity, leading to arrhythmias. Therefore, all options A, B, and C can occur in combination during a cocaine overdose, contributing to its rapid fatality. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass the range of potential fatal outcomes associated with cocaine overdose.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Theophylline. Theophylline is a bronchodilator drug related to xanthine due to its chemical structure being a xanthine derivative. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, thus dilating the bronchioles and improving airflow in conditions like asthma and COPD. A: Atropine is not a xanthine derivative and is mainly used to treat bradycardia and in emergency situations like poisoning. B: Orciprenaline is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, not a xanthine derivative, used for bronchodilation in conditions like asthma and COPD. C: Adrenaline is a catecholamine and acts as a non-selective adrenergic agonist, primarily used in emergency situations like anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. It is not a xanthine derivative. In summary, Theophylline is the correct choice

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fercoven. Parenteral iron therapy involves administering iron intravenously or intramuscularly to treat iron deficiency anemia when oral iron is not effective. Fercoven is a formulation specifically designed for parenteral administration, making it the appropriate choice. Ferrous sulfate, ferrous lactate, and ferrous fumarate are oral iron supplements and are not suitable for parenteral administration. Ferrous sulfate is commonly used orally but can cause gastrointestinal side effects, while ferrous lactate and ferrous fumarate are also oral iron salts. Therefore, Fercoven is the correct choice for parenteral iron therapy.