Indicate the antiseizure drug, which is a sulfonamide derivative, blocking Na+ channels and having additional ability to inhibit T-type Ca2+ channels:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zonisamide. Zonisamide is a sulfonamide derivative that blocks Na+ channels and also inhibits T-type Ca2+ channels. This dual mechanism of action helps in controlling seizures. Tiagabine (A) inhibits GABA reuptake, Ethosuximide (C) blocks T-type Ca2+ channels only, and Primidone (D) is metabolized into phenobarbital, which enhances GABAergic activity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Both naltrexone and disulfiram are known to potentially cause liver toxicity individually. When used together, the risk of hepatotoxicity is significantly increased due to their combined effects on the liver. Therefore, the combination of naltrexone and disulfiram should be avoided to prevent liver damage. Choice B: FALSE is incorrect because combining two hepatotoxins like naltrexone and disulfiram can indeed lead to liver toxicity. Choice C: None is incorrect as there is a clear recommendation to avoid the combination of these two drugs due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Choice D: All is incorrect as not all combinations of drugs are hepatotoxins, but specifically the combination of naltrexone and disulfiram poses a risk of liver damage.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droperidol. Droperidol is commonly used in combination with fentanyl in neuroleptanalgesia due to its potent antiemetic and sedative properties. It helps enhance the analgesic effects of fentanyl and provides better sedation during procedures. Rationale: 1. Haloperidol (A) is not typically used in neuroleptanalgesia as it lacks the same synergistic effects with opioids as droperidol. 2. Chlorpromazine (C) is not commonly used in neuroleptanalgesia and is more often used in the treatment of psychotic disorders. 3. Clozapine (D) is an atypical antipsychotic and is not part of the standard neuroleptanalgesia regimen. In summary, droperidol is the preferred antipsychotic agent for use in combination with fentanyl in neuroleptanalgesia due to its specific pharmacological properties that

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Nootropic agents enhance cognitive function. 2. Piracetam is a well-known nootropic agent. 3. It improves memory, focus, and overall brain function. 4. Sydnocarb is a stimulant, not a nootropic. 5. Eleuterococci extract is an adaptogen, not a nootropic. 6. Fluoxetine is an antidepressant, not a nootropic. Summary: Piracetam is the correct answer as it aligns with the definition and effects of a nootropic agent. Sydnocarb, Eleuterococci extract, and Fluoxetine do not possess the specific cognitive-enhancing properties of a true nootropic agent.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Buspirone. Buspirone is a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic that has minimal abuse potential, as it does not act on the GABA receptor like benzodiazepines do. Buspirone's mechanism of action involves serotonin and dopamine receptors, making it less likely to be abused compared to benzodiazepines. Rationale: A: Oxazepam is a benzodiazepine, which can lead to dependence and abuse due to its effects on the GABA receptor. C: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, not an anxiolytic. D: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine with high abuse potential due to its rapid onset of action and reinforcing effects.