ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology PPT Questions
Question 1 of 5
Indicate the anesthetic,which is an inhibitor of NMDA glutamate receptors:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Ketamine (choice C) is the correct answer: 1. Ketamine is a known NMDA receptor antagonist, blocking the receptor's activity. 2. By inhibiting NMDA receptors, Ketamine produces dissociative anesthesia. 3. Thiopental (A) is a GABA agonist, Halothane (B) is a volatile anesthetic, and Sevoflurane (D) enhances GABA activity, not acting on NMDA receptors.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following substances is synthesized within vessel walls and inhibits thrombogenesis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostacyclin (PGI2). Prostacyclin is synthesized within vessel walls and acts as a potent inhibitor of thrombogenesis by inhibiting platelet aggregation and promoting vasodilation. Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) (Choice A) is synthesized by platelets and promotes platelet aggregation. Prostaglandin E (PGE) (Choice C) is involved in various physiological processes but does not specifically inhibit thrombogenesis. Choice D is incorrect as Prostacyclin is indeed synthesized within vessel walls and inhibits thrombogenesis.
Question 3 of 5
This drug is a Class II antiarrhythmic drug:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propranolol. Class II antiarrhythmics are beta-blockers, which work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart. Propranolol specifically is a non-selective beta-blocker that reduces heart rate and blood pressure, making it effective in treating certain types of arrhythmias. Flecainide (A) is a Class IC antiarrhythmic, Lidocaine (C) is a Class IB antiarrhythmic, and Verapamil (D) is a Class IV antiarrhythmic. These drugs have different mechanisms of action and are not classified as Class II antiarrhythmics.
Question 4 of 5
Tick the drug with nonselective beta-adrenoblocking activity:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propranolol. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker, meaning it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. This leads to effects such as decreased heart rate, reduced blood pressure, and bronchoconstriction. Atenolol (choice A) and Metoprolol (choice C) are selective beta-1 blockers, primarily affecting the heart. Nebivolol (choice D) is a beta-1 blocker with vasodilatory properties. By blocking both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, Propranolol has a wider range of effects compared to the other choices.
Question 5 of 5
Main agents for acute migraine attack treatment are Ergot and indol derivatives and NSAID’s. The consideration is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: TRUE. Ergot and indol derivatives, along with NSAIDs, are indeed main agents for acute migraine attack treatment. Ergot derivatives like ergotamine and dihydroergotamine are vasoconstrictors that help alleviate migraine symptoms by reducing blood flow in the brain. Indol derivatives like sumatriptan are serotonin receptor agonists that also help relieve migraines. NSAIDs like ibuprofen can help reduce inflammation and pain associated with migraines. Therefore, the statement is true. Summary of other choices: B: FALSE - This choice is incorrect as the statement in the question is true. C: Null - This choice is incorrect as it does not provide any relevant information to the question. D: All - This choice is incorrect as it implies that all agents are main agents for acute migraine attack treatment, which is not accurate.