ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology PPT Questions
Question 1 of 5
Indicate the anesthetic agent of choice in patient with a liver disease:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Procaine. Patients with liver disease have impaired metabolism and clearance of certain drugs. Procaine is the anesthetic agent of choice in patients with liver disease because it is metabolized in plasma rather than the liver, reducing the risk of toxicity. Lidocaine (A) and Bupivacaine (B) are primarily metabolized by the liver and can accumulate in patients with liver disease, leading to toxicity. Etidocaine (D) is also metabolized by the liver and should be avoided in patients with liver dysfunction. Therefore, Procaine is the safest choice in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
Ganglion blocking drugs are used for the following emergencies EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiovascular collapse. Ganglion blocking drugs are not used for cardiovascular collapse because they can worsen the condition by further reducing blood pressure. These drugs are indicated for hypertensive crises, controlled hypotension, and pulmonary edema due to their ability to block ganglionic transmission and lower blood pressure. In cardiovascular collapse, the priority is to increase blood pressure and perfusion, which is not achieved by using ganglion blocking drugs. Therefore, using these drugs in cardiovascular collapse can be detrimental. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ganglion blocking drugs can be beneficial in managing hypertensive crises, controlled hypotension, and pulmonary edema, respectively.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Methoxamine is an alpha1-selective agonist, meaning it specifically targets alpha1 receptors. Step 2: Alpha1 receptors are found in smooth muscles, and activation causes vasoconstriction. Step 3: Methoxamine's selective action on alpha1 receptors makes it suitable for conditions requiring vasoconstriction. Step 4: Norepinephrine (A) is a non-selective agonist for alpha and beta receptors, not specifically targeting alpha1 receptors. Step 5: Ritodrine (C) is a beta2-selective agonist used for tocolysis in preterm labor, not targeting alpha1 receptors. Step 6: Ephedrine (D) is a mixed-acting sympathomimetic that acts on both alpha and beta receptors, not alpha1-selective.
Question 4 of 5
The principal adverse effects of phentolamine include all of the following EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic blocker, which typically causes tachycardia rather than bradycardia due to its vasodilatory effect. Diarrhea (choice A) can occur due to its effect on smooth muscle relaxation, arrhythmias (choice C) can result from its impact on cardiac conduction, and myocardial ischemia (choice D) can happen due to decreased cardiac output. Bradycardia is not a common adverse effect of phentolamine, making it the correct answer in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
Imidazopyridines are:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because imidazopyridines are known to be selective agonists of the BZ1 (omega1) subtype of BZ receptors. This is based on their specific binding affinity and activity at the BZ1 receptor subtype, which distinguishes them from other receptor subtypes. Imidazopyridines do not act as partial agonists at brain 5-TH1A receptors (choice A), competitive antagonists of BZ receptors (choice C), or nonselective agonists of both BZ1 and BZ2 receptor subtypes (choice D). By being selective agonists of the BZ1 subtype, imidazopyridines exhibit unique pharmacological properties that make them suitable for targeting specific therapeutic outcomes related to the BZ1 receptor subtype.