Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:

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The Cardiovascular Pharmacology of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oxprenolol. Oxprenolol is a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, meaning it has partial agonist activity along with blocking effects. This can result in less reduction of heart rate and blood pressure compared to non-selective beta blockers like Propranolol (A). Metoprolol (C) and Carvedilol (D) are both beta blockers without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, making them incorrect choices.

Question 2 of 5

The main benefit of levetiracetam over other antiseizure drugs is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because levetiracetam has fewer drug interactions, is effective for a wide range of seizure types, and does not cause cognitive dysfunction. Firstly, it has a lower potential for interactions compared to other antiseizure drugs. Secondly, it is known to be effective in treating various seizure types, making it a versatile option. Lastly, it has a favorable side effect profile with minimal impact on cognitive function, setting it apart from some other antiseizure medications. Therefore, the main benefit of levetiracetam lies in its comprehensive advantages over other antiseizure drugs.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone. Naloxone is a full antagonist of opioid receptors because it binds strongly to these receptors, blocking their activation by opioids. This competitive inhibition prevents opioid drugs from exerting their effects, making naloxone an effective overdose reversal agent. Meperidine (A) is a partial agonist, buprenorphine (B) is a partial agonist with mixed antagonist activity, and butorphanol (D) is a mixed agonist-antagonist. Therefore, they do not fully block opioid receptors like naloxone does.

Question 4 of 5

Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because aspirin does have an anti-inflammatory effect by inhibiting COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin synthesis. A is correct as aspirin inhibits mainly peripheral COX-1. C is correct as aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking thromboxane synthesis. D is incorrect as aspirin does not stimulate respiration but can cause respiratory alkalosis at toxic doses due to metabolic acidosis.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following agents is related to the third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nefazodone. Third-generation heterocyclic antidepressants are newer antidepressants with improved side effect profiles compared to older generations. Nefazodone falls under this category due to its unique mechanism of action involving serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition. It is also known for its lower risk of causing weight gain and sexual dysfunction compared to older antidepressants. Amitriptyline (A) and Maprotiline (B) are first-generation tricyclic antidepressants, known for their anticholinergic side effects. Tranylcypromine (D) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), which is a different class of antidepressants with its own set of side effects and interactions.

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