ATI RN
Pharmacology of Drugs Acting on Cardiovascular System PDF Questions
Question 1 of 5
Indicate a beta receptor antagonist which has very long duration of action:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nadolol. Nadolol is a non-selective beta blocker with a long half-life, leading to an extended duration of action. It is typically dosed once daily, making it convenient for patients. Metoprolol (A) and Propranolol (B) have shorter durations of action compared to Nadolol. Pindolol (D) is a partial beta agonist and does not exhibit a long duration of action like Nadolol.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following antiseizure drugs has a high risk of causing cognitive side effects such as memory impairment and confusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topiramate. Topiramate is known for its high risk of causing cognitive side effects, such as memory impairment and confusion, due to its mechanism of action on neurotransmitters. Phenytoin (B), Valproate (C), and Gabapentin (D) are less likely to cause significant cognitive side effects compared to Topiramate. Phenytoin is more associated with motor coordination issues, Valproate with weight gain and liver toxicity, and Gabapentin with sedation and dizziness. Therefore, based on the pharmacological profile of each drug, Topiramate stands out as the drug with a high risk of cognitive side effects.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Morphine. Morphine is a strong mu receptor agonist because it binds to and activates the mu opioid receptors in the central nervous system, leading to potent analgesic effects. Naloxone (A) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not an agonist. Pentazocine (C) is a mixed opioid receptor agonist/antagonist. Buprenorphine (D) is a partial mu receptor agonist with mixed antagonist properties. Therefore, the other choices do not fit the criteria of being a strong mu receptor agonist like morphine.
Question 4 of 5
Which one of the following non-narcotic agents inhibits mainly cyclooxygenase (COX) in CNS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 5 of 5
The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because antidepressants primarily work by blocking the reuptake pumps of serotonin or norepinephrine, increasing the levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. This leads to enhanced neurotransmission and improved mood regulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the primary mechanism of action of antidepressants. Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors (A) is not the main mechanism, inhibition of storage of serotonin and epinephrine (B) is not how antidepressants work, and stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors (D) is not the primary mechanism for antidepressant effects.