Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm:

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Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

Indicate a beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid storm:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Beta-blockers are commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm due to their ability to block the effects of excess thyroid hormones. In the context of thyroid storm, propranolol, the correct answer, is particularly efficacious due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. Propranolol blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, helping to control symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, and anxiety associated with thyroid storm. Option A, Pindolol, is a beta-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, which may not be as effective in the acute control of symptoms in thyroid storm compared to a non-selective beta-blocker like propranolol. Option B, Sotalol, is primarily a Class III antiarrhythmic drug used for managing certain types of arrhythmias. While it has beta-blocking properties, it is not the optimal choice for managing thyroid storm. Option C, Phentolamine, is an alpha-adrenergic blocker and is not typically used in the management of thyroid storm. It is more commonly used in conditions like pheochromocytoma or for managing hypertensive crises. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological management of thyroid storm is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers. Knowing the specific actions of different beta-blockers and their suitability for different clinical scenarios can help in making appropriate and effective treatment decisions for patients experiencing thyroid storm.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following hypnotic drugs has the least potential of physical dependence?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Zopiclone. Zopiclone is a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic drug that has a lower potential for physical dependence compared to the other options provided. This is due to its unique pharmacological profile, which includes a shorter half-life and less impact on the GABA receptors in the brain that are associated with the development of physical dependence. Phenobarbital (Option A) is a barbiturate with a high potential for physical dependence and tolerance, making it a poor choice for long-term use as a hypnotic drug. Diazepam (Option B) and Flurazepam (Option D) are benzodiazepines, which are known to have significant potential for physical dependence and tolerance development, especially with prolonged use. In an educational context, understanding the differences in the potential for physical dependence among hypnotic drugs is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those involved in prescribing medications to patients across the lifespan. By knowing which drugs have lower risks of physical dependence, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions when selecting pharmacological interventions for sleep disorders, taking into account individual patient factors and potential risks associated with long-term use of these medications.

Question 3 of 5

Indicate the usual cause of death due to overdose of hypnotics:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the effects of hypnotics on the body is crucial. In this case, when considering the usual cause of death due to an overdose of hypnotics, the correct answer is A) Depression of the medullar respiratory center. When an individual overdoses on hypnotics, especially sedative-hypnotics like benzodiazepines or barbiturates, it can lead to a significant depression of the central nervous system, including the medullar respiratory center. This depression can result in respiratory failure, where the individual may stop breathing, leading to hypoxia and eventually death. This mechanism is the primary reason for death in cases of hypnotic overdose. Now, let's address why the other options are incorrect: - B) Hypothermia: While hypothermia can be a potential complication of overdose, it is not the usual cause of death in cases of hypnotic overdose. - C) Cerebral edema: Cerebral edema, or swelling of the brain, is not a typical outcome of hypnotic overdose that leads directly to death. - D) Status epilepticus: Status epilepticus is a prolonged seizure activity and is not typically associated with overdose of hypnotics. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of medications like hypnotics is essential for healthcare professionals, especially those working with patients across the lifespan. Being able to recognize the signs of overdose and understanding the potential consequences can help in providing timely and appropriate interventions to prevent adverse outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Dose-related adverse effect caused by phenytoin is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication known to cause gingival hyperplasia as a dose-related adverse effect. This condition involves an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, discomfort, and aesthetic concerns. Option A) Physical and psychological dependence is not a dose-related adverse effect of phenytoin but rather a concern with drugs that have addictive properties or affect the central nervous system differently. Option B) Exacerbated grand mal epilepsy would not be a common dose-related adverse effect of phenytoin, as the medication is primarily used to manage seizures. Option D) Extrapyramidal symptoms are associated with certain antipsychotic medications, not typically with phenytoin. Educationally, understanding the common adverse effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. Knowing the specific adverse effects of phenytoin, such as gingival hyperplasia, helps in monitoring and managing these effects to ensure the well-being of patients on this medication.

Question 5 of 5

Lamotrigine can be used in the treatment of:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lamotrigine is an antiepileptic medication that can be used in the treatment of various types of seizures. The correct answer, option D, "All of the above" is correct because lamotrigine is effective in treating partial seizures, absence seizures, and myoclonic seizures. For educational context, it's important to understand that lamotrigine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that can be used across different types of seizures, making it a versatile choice for patients with various seizure disorders. By choosing option D, individuals demonstrate a comprehensive understanding of the drug's indications and its effectiveness in managing different seizure types. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they represent only specific types of seizures that lamotrigine can treat individually. Choosing any of these options would limit the scope of conditions for which lamotrigine can be prescribed, missing the opportunity to fully utilize its broad spectrum of efficacy in seizure management. In summary, understanding the broad applicability of lamotrigine in treating various seizure types is crucial for healthcare professionals managing patients with epilepsy. This knowledge ensures appropriate treatment selection based on the patient's specific seizure type, optimizing therapeutic outcomes and improving patient care.

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