Incident Reports (IRs) shall be collected for the day and due investigations scheduled by the quality Department. Upon completion of the investigation, the IRS ____.

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Adult Health Nursing First Chapter Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

Incident Reports (IRs) shall be collected for the day and due investigations scheduled by the quality Department. Upon completion of the investigation, the IRS ____.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Incident Reports (IRs) must be summarized monthly and stored in a secured cabinet for several reasons. Firstly, summarizing the IRs monthly allows for a consolidated overview of the incidents that have occurred, highlighting any recurring patterns or trends that may need to be addressed. By storing the summarized IRs in a secured cabinet, the information is kept confidential and protected from unauthorized access. This practice also ensures that the reports are organized and easily accessible for future reference or audits. Storing the IRs on an open cabinet, table top, or with a classification system that may not be easily understandable can lead to potential breaches of confidentiality or difficulty in retrieving and understanding the information when needed.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, just above the clavicle. Fine-needle aspiration cytology reveals clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The presentation of a small, painless, well-defined nodule on the lateral aspect of the neck, above the clavicle, along with the cytology showing clusters of polygonal cells with abundant granular cytoplasm is most indicative of a parathyroid adenoma. Parathyroid adenomas are benign tumors derived from the parathyroid gland that can produce excess parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hyperparathyroidism. The characteristic histology of parathyroid adenomas includes chief cells with abundant granular cytoplasm.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of collaboration

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of collaboration is to accomplish shared goals and objectives. When individuals work together towards a common purpose, they can combine their different skills, perspectives, and resources to achieve outcomes that could not be accomplished by working alone. Collaborating enables team members to leverage each other's strengths and expertise, leading to more innovative and effective solutions. While camaraderie and efficiency are important aspects of collaboration, the ultimate aim is to successfully achieve the desired goals.

Question 4 of 9

A patient is prescribed a loop diuretic for the management of heart failure. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with loop diuretic therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Loop diuretics such as furosemide are commonly prescribed for the management of heart failure to reduce fluid overload and lower blood pressure by increasing the excretion of sodium and water. These medications promote the loss of potassium through increased urinary output. Hypokalemia, or low potassium levels in the blood, is the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with loop diuretic therapy. Potassium is an essential electrolyte for proper functioning of the heart, muscles, and nerves. Low potassium levels can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, cramps, and potentially life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Patients on loop diuretics are often monitored for potassium levels, and sometimes potassium supplements may be prescribed to prevent or correct hypokalemia.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following actions is appropriate when managing a patient with a suspected heat stroke?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When managing a patient with a suspected heat stroke, the appropriate action is to remove the patient from the hot environment and start cooling the body. Heat stroke is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening if not promptly treated. Cooling the body is essential to lower the core body temperature as quickly as possible. Ice packs should not be directly applied to the skin as they can cause vasoconstriction and may actually hinder heat dissipation. Administering warm intravenous fluids and encouraging the patient to drink cold water rapidly are also not recommended in the initial management of a heat stroke. The priority is to cool the patient down and seek medical attention immediately.

Question 6 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset, severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye appears red, with a steamy cornea and mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described is characteristic of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This condition typically presents with sudden-onset severe eye pain, headache, nausea, and vomiting. On examination, the affected eye may appear red due to conjunctival injection, and there may be a steamy cornea due to corneal edema. The mid-dilated, non-reactive pupil is a key finding in angle-closure glaucoma, as the iris bombe (forward movement of the peripheral iris) blocks the drainage angle, leading to increased intraocular pressure. If left untreated, acute angle-closure glaucoma can result in irreversible vision loss. Immediate intervention is crucial to lower the intraocular pressure and prevent further damage to the optic nerve. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist for definitive treatment is necessary in cases of suspected acute angle-closure glaucoma.

Question 7 of 9

The type of epidemiologic study that is used to describe a group of persons enrolled in a study who share some characteristic of interest and who are followed over a period of time to observe some health outcome is a/an:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Cohort studies are types of epidemiological studies that involve a group of individuals who share a common characteristic or experience and are followed over time to observe the development of a particular health outcome. This type of study is useful in determining the incidence of a disease, identifying risk factors, and studying the natural history of a disease. Cohort studies allow researchers to investigate the relationship between exposure and outcome by following participants forward in time. It helps in establishing causality and is particularly useful for studying rare exposures or outcomes. In contrast, cross-sectional studies involve collecting data from a population at a single point in time, experimental studies involve interventions and control groups, and case-control studies involve comparing individuals with a particular health outcome (cases) to those without the outcome (controls) retrospectively.

Question 8 of 9

The ER nurse clarifies the doctor's prescription on the dose of the pain medication based on the pain scale assessment and patient's age. which ethical principle is applied?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Non-maleficence is the ethical principle that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. In this scenario, the ER nurse clarifies the doctor's prescription to ensure the correct dosage of the pain medication based on the pain scale assessment and the patient's age. By doing so, the nurse is ensuring that the medication is safe and effective for the patient, thus adhering to the principle of non-maleficence. This action demonstrates the nurse's commitment to preventing harm and promoting the well-being of the patient through proper medication management.

Question 9 of 9

What must be stressed to all participants attending a health fair?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Stressing to all participants attending a health fair that a screening program is not a substitute for ongoing health supervision from a healthcare provider is crucial for several reasons. Health fairs are intended to provide a snapshot of an individual's health at a specific point in time and are not comprehensive assessments. Participants need to understand that these screenings are not a replacement for regular check-ups with their healthcare provider, who can provide continued monitoring, follow-up care, and more in-depth evaluations if necessary. It's important for participants to recognize that the results from a health fair screening are just one piece of their overall health picture and that ongoing care from a healthcare provider is essential for maintaining their well-being.

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