In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

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microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.

Question 2 of 5

The biosafety level necessary in water testing facilities is level

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1. Water testing facilities typically handle low-risk microorganisms, hence requiring Biosafety Level 1. BSL 1 is suitable for working with well-characterized agents not known to consistently cause disease in healthy adults. BSL 2 is for moderate-risk agents, BSL 3 for high-risk agents, and BSL 4 for dangerous pathogens. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect for water testing facilities due to the low risk involved in handling the microorganisms found in water samples.

Question 3 of 5

A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Question 4 of 5

The first grade pupils were examined in order to sort out children for tuberculosis revaccination. What test was applied for this purpose?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mantoux test. The Mantoux test is used to detect tuberculosis infection by injecting a small amount of tuberculin under the skin and checking for a reaction. This test helps identify individuals who have been exposed to tuberculosis. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Schick test is used to determine immunity to diphtheria, not tuberculosis. C: Anthraxine test is used for anthrax, not tuberculosis. D: Burnet test is not a recognized medical test for tuberculosis.

Question 5 of 5

On the territory of a certain region the mass death of rodents was observed. It was assumed that it may be caused by plague agent. What serological reaction should be applied for quick determination of antigen of this epizootic agent?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination reaction. This is the most suitable serological reaction for the quick determination of the antigen of the epizootic agent causing mass rodent deaths. In agglutination reaction, antibodies cause the clumping of antigens, allowing for easy visual detection of the presence of the specific antigen. This is efficient for rapid diagnosis in cases of suspected infectious diseases like plague. A: Precipitation reaction is more suitable for identifying soluble antigens, not for quick determination of a specific antigen in this scenario. C: Reaction of passive hemagglutination is used for measuring the presence of antibodies, not antigens. D: Bordet-Gengou test is a specific test for the identification of Bordetella pertussis bacterium, not suitable for this scenario.

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