In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

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microbiology chapter 12 test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.

Question 2 of 9

Micellar growth

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Micellar growth refers to the apical prolongation of hyphae in fungi. Step 2: Fungi have a unique growth structure with hyphae extending at the tips. Step 3: This growth pattern allows fungi to expand and access nutrients. Step 4: Bacterial cells (A) do not exhibit micellar growth. Step 5: Parent and daughter cells in division have similar sizes, not different (B). Step 6: Viruses and rickettsia (C) do not display micellar growth.

Question 3 of 9

A sputum sample from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent for pneumonia in this case due to the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule, which is a typical characteristic of S. pneumoniae. This pathogen is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia and is known for its encapsulated morphology. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is a Gram-positive cocci but does not typically present in pairs with a capsule in pneumonia cases. Klebsiella pneumoniae (C) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not match the description provided. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) is a Gram-negative bacterium that is not typically associated with Gram-positive cocci in pneumonia samples.

Question 4 of 9

Bacteria that require oxygen for survival are called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obligate aerobes. These bacteria require oxygen for their survival and growth. They utilize oxygen in their metabolic processes and cannot survive in the absence of oxygen. Choice A, obligate anaerobes, cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. Choice B, facultative anaerobes, can switch between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism based on oxygen availability. Choice D, aerotolerant anaerobes, can tolerate the presence of oxygen but do not require it for their growth. Therefore, the most appropriate term for bacteria that require oxygen for survival is obligate aerobes.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following bacteria produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above," because all three bacteria listed (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, Escherichia coli) produce toxins that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness. Vibrio cholerae produces cholera toxin leading to severe diarrhea. Clostridium difficile produces toxins causing antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Escherichia coli can produce toxins such as Shiga toxin causing severe gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, all the options listed are correct in producing toxins that can result in severe gastrointestinal illness.

Question 6 of 9

Your patient is a 22-year-old man. The patient reports that two weeks after unprotected sexual contact, a small ulcer appeared on its penis. The local inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Dark field microscopic examination of the ulcer secretions was performed. The test reveals presence of motile, curved spirochete. The most common causative agent of the disease is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Treponema pallidum. The scenario describes symptoms of primary syphilis, which is caused by Treponema pallidum. The presence of a painless ulcer (chancre) and enlarged inguinal lymph nodes are characteristic of syphilis. Dark field microscopic examination showing motile, curved spirochetes is highly specific for Treponema pallidum. Incorrect explanations: A: Chlamydia trachomatis typically causes urethritis or cervicitis, not painless ulcers. C: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea, which presents with purulent discharge, not painless ulcers. D: Herpes simplex virus type 2 causes genital herpes, leading to painful ulcers and vesicles, not painless ulcers seen in syphilis.

Question 7 of 9

Another term for spontaneous generation is __________.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: abiogenesis. Spontaneous generation refers to the idea that living organisms can arise from non-living matter, which was disproven by Louis Pasteur. Abiogenesis specifically refers to the origin of life from non-living matter, making it synonymous with spontaneous generation. Biogenesis (A) is the principle that living organisms only come from other living organisms. Evolution (C) is the process of gradual change in species over time. Spontaneity (D) refers to happening without external cause and is not directly related to the concept of spontaneous generation.

Question 8 of 9

A 10-year-old child had the mantoux tuberculin test administered. 48 hours later a papule up to 8 mm in diameter appeared on the site of the injection. What type of hypersensitivity reaction developed after the tuberculin injection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of reaction is characterized by a delayed response involving T cells. In this case, the appearance of a papule after 48 hours indicates a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, which is typical of a Type IV reaction. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Arthus phenomenon is a localized immune complex-mediated reaction, not seen in tuberculin tests. C: Seroreaction typically involves antibodies reacting with soluble antigens, not seen in this scenario. D: Type II hypersensitivity reactions involve antibodies targeting specific cells or tissues, which is not the mechanism at play in this case.

Question 9 of 9

A Gram-stained sputum smear revealed Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores. The patient presented with severe pneumonia. What is the causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacillus anthracis. The presence of Gram-positive rods in chains with central spores on the Gram stain indicates Bacillus anthracis. This bacterium is known to cause severe pneumonia. Clostridium tetani does not typically cause pneumonia but rather tetanus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive cocci, not rods. Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative bacterium commonly associated with pneumonia, but it does not form central spores.

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