In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell. This is facilitated by the shortening of microtubules attached to the centromeres. Prophase is the phase where chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down. Metaphase is when chromosomes align at the metaphase plate. Telophase is when the nuclear envelope reforms and chromosomes decondense. Therefore, anaphase is the correct phase for chromatid separation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination reaction. This is the most suitable serological reaction for the quick determination of the antigen of the epizootic agent causing mass rodent deaths. In agglutination reaction, antibodies cause the clumping of antigens, allowing for easy visual detection of the presence of the specific antigen. This is efficient for rapid diagnosis in cases of suspected infectious diseases like plague. A: Precipitation reaction is more suitable for identifying soluble antigens, not for quick determination of a specific antigen in this scenario. C: Reaction of passive hemagglutination is used for measuring the presence of antibodies, not antigens. D: Bordet-Gengou test is a specific test for the identification of Bordetella pertussis bacterium, not suitable for this scenario.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cytoplasmic inclusions in bacteria refer to substances like granules. These granules can be excess products of metabolism or reserve substances stored for future use. Therefore, all of the choices are correct as cytoplasmic inclusions can be any of these substances. A is correct as it directly refers to cytoplasmic inclusions. B is correct as some granules can be excess metabolic products. C is correct as certain granules can serve as reserve substances. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it encompasses all the possible types of substances found as cytoplasmic inclusions in bacteria.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease. This virus primarily affects children and causes a distinctive red rash on the cheeks, arms, and legs. It is not associated with causing HBV (Hepatitis B Virus), AIDS, or measles. Parvovirus B19 specifically targets red blood cell precursors, leading to anemia in some cases. Understanding the characteristic clinical presentation and pathophysiology of the virus helps in selecting the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: metronidazole. Metronidazole is specifically effective against protozoan infections due to its ability to target and disrupt the DNA of the parasites. It is commonly used to treat infections such as trichomoniasis and giardiasis that affect the reproductive system. Ampicillin (A) and tetracycline (B) are antibiotics that target bacteria, not protozoa. Ciprofloxacin (C) is also an antibiotic that is effective against certain bacterial infections but not protozoan infections. Therefore, metronidazole is the most appropriate choice for fighting protozoan infections of the reproductive system.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bacillary dysentery is caused by the bacterium Shigella, hence it is also known as shigellosis. Shigella is the primary pathogen responsible for this infectious disease, leading to severe diarrhea with blood and mucus. Salmonellosis (A) is caused by Salmonella bacteria, not Shigella. Typhoid fever (C) is caused by Salmonella typhi, not Shigella. Campylobacteriosis (D) is caused by Campylobacter bacteria, not Shigella. Therefore, the correct answer is B because Shigella is the specific bacterium associated with bacillary dysentery.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The term bacilli refers to rod-shaped bacteria, typically found in the Gram-positive group. Spore-forming bacteria, such as Bacillus and Clostridium, are characterized by their rod shape. Choice A is incorrect as the color in Gram staining does not define bacilli. Choice C is incorrect as peptidoglycan content does not determine the classification of bacilli. Choice D is incorrect as bacilli do have a specific characteristic. Therefore, the correct answer is B due to the shape and characteristic of spore-forming bacteria.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Immunocomplex. In this case, the patient's symptoms of fever, joint pains, rash, and itch along with leukopenia and thrombocytopenia indicate a serum sickness reaction. This is a type III hypersensitivity reaction where antigen-antibody complexes deposit in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. The symptoms typically occur 1-2 weeks after exposure to the antigen. Anaphylactic reaction (choice A) is immediate and involves IgE antibodies. Cytotoxic reaction (choice B) involves destruction of cells by antibodies. Delayed hypersensitivity (choice C) usually takes 48-72 hours to develop and involves T-cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the symptoms and timeline of a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: sporadic disease. Infection of several persons without any epidemiological link is considered sporadic because it occurs in a random and isolated manner, with no clear pattern or connection between cases. It is not classified as an epidemic (A) because it does not involve a sudden increase in the number of cases within a specific population. It is also not endemic (C) as endemic diseases are constantly present in a particular region or population. Lastly, it is not a pandemic (D) which refers to a global outbreak affecting a large number of people across different countries.