ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In which of the ff circumstances should a nurse avoid using midline and mid clavicular sites for IV therapy? Choose all that apply.
Correct Answer: a
Rationale: In pediatric nursing practice, the choice of IV sites is crucial for ensuring safe and effective delivery of medications and fluids. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) To administer solutions with a pH greater than 5 and less than 9. Midline and mid-clavicular sites are peripheral venous access points that are not suitable for administering solutions with extreme pH levels as they can cause irritation, phlebitis, and tissue damage. Option B) To administer antineoplastic chemotherapy should be avoided in midline and mid-clavicular sites because these medications are vesicants and can lead to severe tissue damage and necrosis if extravasation occurs. It is safer to administer antineoplastic agents through central venous access. Option C) To administer slow, low-volume infusions can be done safely through midline and mid-clavicular sites as long as the pH of the solution is within an acceptable range and the infusion rate is appropriate for peripheral access. Option D) To administer high-pressure bolus injections should also be avoided in midline and mid-clavicular sites due to the risk of damaging the vein or causing infiltration. Educationally, understanding the limitations and appropriate use of different IV access sites is essential for pediatric nurses to provide safe and effective care to their patients. Nurses need to consider factors such as pH of solutions, medication properties, infusion rates, and pressure levels when selecting the most suitable IV site for each situation. This knowledge helps prevent complications, ensures optimal drug delivery, and promotes positive patient outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following risk factors presents the greatest threat for respiratory disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Smoking presents the greatest threat for respiratory disease among the given options. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can damage the lungs and airways, leading to conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), lung cancer, and other respiratory disorders. Smoking is a well-known and established risk factor for a wide range of respiratory diseases and is considered one of the leading causes of preventable death worldwide. Therefore, quitting smoking and avoiding exposure to secondhand smoke is crucial for maintaining respiratory health.
Question 3 of 5
A patient develops a postoperative deep vein thrombosis and is started on IV heparin. Which of the ff. laboratory tests is monitored during the heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During heparin therapy, the laboratory test that is monitored is the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Heparin acts by potentiating the activity of antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of both thrombin and factor Xa. The PTT measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged with heparin due to its anticoagulant effect. Monitoring the PTT helps to ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of anticoagulation to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding complications. Plasma fibrinogen, prothrombin time (PT), and international normalized ratio (INR) are not routinely monitored during heparin therapy.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is the function of macrophages and neutrophils?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The function of macrophages and neutrophils is primarily phagocytosis, which is the process of engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria, virus-infected cells, and cellular debris. Phagocytosis is a crucial defense mechanism of the immune system as it helps eliminate harmful invaders and promote tissue repair. Macrophages and neutrophils play key roles in innate immunity by recognizing, ingesting, and destroying pathogens to protect the body from infections.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse would evaluate that the patient understands what triggers allergic rhinitis by which of the following patient responses?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Allergic rhinitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages caused by exposure to allergens. Common triggers include airborne pollens and molds, which are inhaled through the nose and can lead to symptoms such as sneezing, nasal congestion, and itchy/watery eyes. Understanding these triggers is essential for managing allergic rhinitis effectively, as patients can take steps to minimize their exposure to these allergens and reduce their symptoms. The correct answer is D because it specifically addresses the environmental triggers associated with allergic rhinitis.