ATI RN
Psychobiologic Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
In which location of the cardiovascular system is the highest concentration of baroreceptors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The aorta and carotid arteries. Baroreceptors are sensors that detect changes in blood pressure. The highest concentration of baroreceptors is found in the aorta and carotid arteries because these are major arteries close to the heart and brain, which are crucial for maintaining blood pressure regulation. The aorta and carotid arteries constantly monitor blood pressure and send signals to the brain to help regulate it. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the carotid veins, supraclavicular arteries, and femoral arteries do not contain as high a concentration of baroreceptors as the aorta and carotid arteries, which play a significant role in blood pressure regulation.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Orders from the physician include 100 mg chlorpromazine IM STAT and then 50 mg PO bid; 2 mg benztropine PO bid prn. Why is chlorpromazine ordered?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - To decrease psychotic symptoms Rationale: 1. Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic used to manage psychotic symptoms in schizophrenia. 2. It acts by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, helping to alleviate hallucinations and delusions. 3. The IM STAT dose provides rapid relief, followed by the oral dose for maintenance. 4. Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, not chlorpromazine. 5. Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome or induce sleep. Summary: A: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not primarily reduce extrapyramidal symptoms. B: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine does not prevent neuroleptic malignant syndrome. D: Incorrect - Chlorpromazine is not primarily used to induce sleep.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is interviewing a client on the psychiatric unit. The client tilts his head to the side, stops talking in midsentence, and listens intently. The nurse recognizes from these signs that the client is likely experiencing:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory hallucinations. When a client tilts their head to the side, stops talking, and listens intently, it suggests that they are hearing something that others cannot, indicating auditory hallucinations. This behavior aligns with the sensory experience of hearing voices. Somatic delusions (A) involve false beliefs about one's body, not auditory experiences. Catatonic stupor (B) is characterized by immobility and unresponsiveness, not specific behavioral cues like tilting the head. Pseudoparkinsonism (D) refers to drug-induced symptoms resembling Parkinson's disease, not related to the client's behavior during the interview.
Question 4 of 5
In the harmful dysfunction definition of psychological disorders, dysfunction involves
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the harmful dysfunction definition of psychological disorders, dysfunction involves the inability of a psychological mechanism to perform its function. This means that there is a failure in the normal operation of a mental process or system, leading to disturbances in cognition, emotion, behavior, or interpersonal relationships. Option A is correct because it directly aligns with the concept of dysfunction in this context. Option B, the breakdown of social order in one's community, is incorrect as it does not relate to the individual psychological mechanism's dysfunction, which is the focus when defining psychological disorders. Option C, communication problems in one's immediate family, is also incorrect as it pertains to interpersonal issues rather than dysfunction at the psychological mechanism level. Understanding the harmful dysfunction definition is crucial in the study of psychobiologic disorders as it provides a framework for identifying and categorizing mental health conditions based on the failure of psychological mechanisms to operate effectively. This definition helps differentiate between normal variations in behavior and clinically significant disturbances, guiding assessment, diagnosis, and treatment in the field of psychology.
Question 5 of 5
The diathesis-stress model presumes that psychopathology results from
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The diathesis-stress model is a widely accepted theory in psychology that suggests psychopathology results from an interaction between a genetic predisposition (diathesis) and stressful environmental factors. Option A, "vulnerability and adverse experiences," aligns with this model as it acknowledges that individuals with a genetic predisposition may develop a disorder when exposed to significant stressors. This option captures the essence of the diathesis-stress model by emphasizing the interplay between genetic vulnerability and environmental stress. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they oversimplify the etiology of psychopathology. While biochemical factors and chemical imbalances may play a role in some psychobiologic disorders, the diathesis-stress model emphasizes the multifaceted nature of mental health conditions. Likewise, adverse childhood experiences, although significant in the development of certain disorders, do not fully capture the complexity of psychopathology as proposed by the diathesis-stress model. In an educational context, understanding the diathesis-stress model is crucial for students studying psychobiologic disorders as it provides a comprehensive framework for explaining the development of mental health conditions. By grasping the interaction between genetic vulnerability and environmental stressors, students can appreciate the nuanced factors contributing to psychopathology and tailor interventions accordingly. This knowledge equips future mental health professionals with a more holistic understanding of the complexities involved in the onset of psychobiologic disorders.