ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ventral displacement. In ventral displacement hypospadias, the urethral opening is located on the underside of the penis, making it necessary to defer circumcision to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair. Preserving the prepuce in this case is important for reconstructive surgery to correct the hypospadias. Choices B, C, and D do not require deferring circumcision as the location of the urethral opening does not impact the need for prepuce preservation for future surgical repair.
Question 2 of 9
A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after being raped. The AGACNP examines her and realizes that the patients husband is the rapist. The patient does not want to press charges and wants to return home with her husband. The AGACNPs initial action should be to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action for the AGACNP is to provide counseling to the patient regarding her options (Choice D). This is important to ensure the patient's safety, well-being, and autonomy. Counseling will allow the patient to explore her feelings, understand her options, and make an informed decision about her next steps. Reporting the physical assault to law enforcement (Choice A) should only be done with the patient's consent to respect her wishes. Having the patient sign a release to go home with her husband (Choice B) could potentially put the patient at risk of further harm. Consulting psychiatry for a psych hold (Choice C) may not be appropriate unless the patient is deemed a danger to herself or others.
Question 3 of 9
In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis): 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity. 2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse. 3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors. B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors. C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
Question 4 of 9
T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, T. S. is brain dead and has a donor notation. However, a long history of alcohol use can lead to liver damage, making her liver unsuitable for donation. Encephalopathy (A) is a brain disorder but does not necessarily impact liver suitability. Hepatitis C infection (B) can affect the liver, but it doesn't automatically disqualify someone from being a donor. Biliary cirrhosis (D) refers to a specific liver condition, but it does not preclude someone from being a liver donor unless it has severely damaged the liver beyond use.
Question 5 of 9
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.
Question 6 of 9
What role does the placenta play in managing fetal waste products?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the placenta performs multiple functions in managing fetal waste products. It filters toxins, facilitates nutrient absorption, and removes carbon dioxide. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and the fetus, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct in describing the role of the placenta in managing fetal waste products. The other choices are incorrect because they do not encompass all the functions that the placenta serves in this context.
Question 7 of 9
Precipitate labor is an unusually rapid labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because precipitate labor is defined as labor that is concluded in less than three hours. This rapid progression can lead to complications such as increased risk of tearing and fetal distress. Choice A is incorrect because it describes a different condition where the cervix fails to dilate despite good contractions. Choice B is incorrect as it contradicts the definition of precipitate labor. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a scenario where the cervix fails to dilate due to poor uterine contractions, which is not characteristic of precipitate labor. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer based on the definition and characteristics of precipitate labor.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with chronic hepatic encephalopathy is being discharged home. Discharge teaching centers upon long-term management strategies to prevent ammonia accumulation. Teaching for this patient includes instruction about
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protein intake of 50 g daily. In hepatic encephalopathy, reducing protein intake is crucial to prevent ammonia accumulation. Protein breakdown in the body leads to ammonia production, which worsens encephalopathy symptoms. Limiting protein intake to 50g daily helps decrease ammonia formation. Lactulose (choice A) is used to reduce ammonia absorption in the gut. Spironolactone (choice B) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention in liver disease. Zolpidem (choice D) is a sedative and not related to managing ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect for long-term management of ammonia accumulation in hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 9 of 9
Cardiac disease grade 1 is also known as
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Grade 1 cardiac disease refers to early-stage or mild heart conditions that are not yet severe. Choice A, "Organic disease," is the correct answer as it encompasses a broad category of structural heart abnormalities. Mitral stenosis (B) and ventricular failure (C) are specific conditions that can be present in cardiac disease but do not represent the general term for grade 1. Vascular disease (D) primarily refers to conditions affecting blood vessels, not the heart itself. In summary, choice A is correct because it is a comprehensive term that includes various structural heart abnormalities typically found in grade 1 cardiac disease, while the other choices are either too specific or unrelated to the concept of grade 1 cardiac disease.