In treatment of hypernatremia, the maximum accepted rate of drop of serum sodium per 24 hours?

Questions 231

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions

Question 1 of 5

In treatment of hypernatremia, the maximum accepted rate of drop of serum sodium per 24 hours?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of hypernatremia, the correct maximum accepted rate of drop of serum sodium per 24 hours is 12 mmol/L (option B). This rate is considered safe to prevent potential complications such as cerebral edema or osmotic demyelination syndrome (ODS). Option A (8 mmol/L) is too conservative of a decrease in serum sodium levels and may not effectively address the hypernatremia within an appropriate timeframe, potentially prolonging the patient's recovery. Option C (16 mmol/L) and option D (20 mmol/L) represent too rapid of a decrease in serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious neurological complications like ODS, especially in patients with chronic hypernatremia. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate rate of correction for electrolyte imbalances like hypernatremia is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide safe and effective care to their patients. Knowledge of the risks associated with correcting sodium levels too quickly or too slowly can help nurses make informed decisions in their clinical practice to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following is a feature of early (compensated) shock:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the features of shock is crucial for early identification and intervention. The correct answer is B) Tachycardia. In early (compensated) shock, the body attempts to maintain perfusion by increasing heart rate to improve cardiac output and maintain blood pressure. Tachycardia is a key compensatory mechanism to ensure vital organs receive adequate blood flow. Option A) Hypotension is incorrect because hypotension typically occurs in the later stage of shock when compensatory mechanisms fail. In early shock, blood pressure may remain within normal limits due to compensatory mechanisms such as tachycardia. Option C) Decreased level of consciousness is incorrect for early shock. Altered mental status is a late sign of shock when cerebral perfusion is compromised due to prolonged inadequate perfusion. Option D) Cold extremities are seen in late decompensated shock when peripheral vasoconstriction occurs to shunt blood to vital organs. In early shock, extremities may be cool but are usually warm due to compensatory mechanisms. Educationally, understanding the progression of shock helps nurses recognize early signs and intervene promptly. Teaching students the timing of clinical manifestations in shock aids in timely assessment and appropriate interventions to prevent further deterioration in pediatric patients. This knowledge is critical for providing safe and effective care in pediatric nursing practice.

Question 3 of 5

Which disease of the following can cause distributive shock?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding shock is crucial as it is a life-threatening condition. Distributive shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance. Among the options provided, early septic shock (Option C) is the one that can cause distributive shock. Early septic shock is a form of distributive shock that occurs in response to a severe infection. In septic shock, the body's response to infection leads to a systemic inflammatory response, causing vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, which can result in distributive shock. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Cardiac tamponade: Cardiac tamponade is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart. While it can lead to obstructive shock, it is not a form of distributive shock. B) Dehydration: Dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock, which is characterized by a decrease in circulating blood volume. It is not a form of distributive shock. D) Critical aortic stenosis: Critical aortic stenosis can lead to obstructive shock due to impaired cardiac output, but it is not a form of distributive shock. In an educational context, understanding the different types of shock, their causes, and manifestations is essential for pediatric nurses to provide prompt and effective care to critically ill pediatric patients. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of distributive shock, such as early septic shock, and initiating appropriate interventions promptly can significantly impact patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following causes hyperkalemia with K+ excess:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding electrolyte imbalances like hyperkalemia is crucial for providing safe and effective care to children. In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Addison's disease. Addison's disease is associated with primary adrenal insufficiency, leading to decreased aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone plays a key role in potassium regulation in the body. With decreased aldosterone levels, potassium excretion by the kidneys is impaired, resulting in hyperkalemia with K+ excess. Option A) Tumor lysis syndrome is incorrect because it typically causes hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia, not hyperkalemia. Option B) Metabolic acidosis can lead to hyperkalemia due to a shift of potassium out of cells, but it is not directly related to K+ excess. Option D) Rhabdomyolysis can cause hyperkalemia due to the release of intracellular potassium from damaged muscle cells, but it is not primarily associated with K+ excess. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the pathophysiology of electrolyte imbalances in pediatric patients. It emphasizes the need for nurses to recognize the underlying conditions that can lead to hyperkalemia and implement appropriate interventions to manage and prevent complications associated with this electrolyte disturbance.

Question 5 of 5

One of the following is a microcytic hypochromic anemia:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding different types of anemia is crucial for providing effective care to children. In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Iron deficiency anemia, which is a microcytic hypochromic anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic) and pale (hypochromic) red blood cells due to insufficient iron for hemoglobin production. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity and leads to symptoms like fatigue, weakness, and pallor in children. A) Aplastic anemia is a normocytic normochromic anemia caused by bone marrow failure, not characterized by microcytic or hypochromic red blood cells. C) Leukemia is a form of cancer affecting white blood cells and does not specifically relate to microcytic hypochromic red blood cells. D) Sickle cell anemia is a normocytic normochromic anemia characterized by abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells due to a genetic mutation, not microcytic or hypochromic cells. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing different types of anemia based on specific characteristics, enabling nurses to provide targeted interventions and treatments for pediatric patients. Understanding these distinctions is vital for accurate assessment, diagnosis, and management in pediatric nursing practice.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions