In the treatment of asthma, inhaled corticosteroids:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of asthma, inhaled corticosteroids are primarily used to prevent long-term symptoms rather than relieve acute symptoms. The correct answer is B because inhaled corticosteroids work by reducing inflammation in the airways, which helps to prevent asthma attacks and manage symptoms over time. Option A, relieving acute symptoms, is typically achieved through the use of short-acting bronchodilators like albuterol, which work quickly to open up the airways during an asthma attack. Option C, causing airway constriction, is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids actually work to reduce inflammation and relax the airways, making it easier to breathe. Option D, stating that inhaled corticosteroids are contraindicated in pregnancy, is not accurate. In fact, inhaled corticosteroids are considered safe to use during pregnancy for the management of asthma as uncontrolled asthma can pose greater risks to both the mother and the baby. Educationally, understanding the role of inhaled corticosteroids in asthma management is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients with asthma. By knowing that these medications are used for long-term symptom control and prevention of asthma exacerbations, healthcare providers can better tailor treatment plans to effectively manage a child's asthma and improve their quality of life.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Is more likely in anti-thrombin III deficiency. Rationale: Anti-thrombin III is a natural anticoagulant that inhibits blood clot formation. When deficient, there is an increased risk of developing blood clots, including pulmonary embolism. Combined oral contraceptive pills contain estrogen and progestin, which further increase the risk of thrombosis by promoting clotting factors. Therefore, in a patient with anti-thrombin III deficiency, the risk of developing a pulmonary embolus while on the combined pill is significantly higher. B) Is more likely in protein C deficiency: Protein C is also an anticoagulant protein, but its deficiency typically leads to an increased risk of venous thrombosis rather than pulmonary embolism specifically in the context of oral contraceptive use. C) Is an absolute contraindication to the combined pill: While a history of pulmonary embolism would be a contraindication to estrogen-containing contraceptives, an acute event like a pulmonary embolus occurring while on the pill does not necessarily make it an absolute contraindication. D) Is an increased risk in smokers: Smoking is a well-known risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, including venous thromboembolism. However, the primary factor in this scenario is the underlying anti-thrombin III deficiency rather than smoking status alone. Educational Context: Understanding the interaction between pharmacological agents like oral contraceptives and underlying conditions such as coagulation disorders is crucial in pediatric cardiovascular nursing. This knowledge helps in assessing risks, making informed decisions about treatment options, and providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients with complex medical needs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the management of intussusception in pediatric patients, the correct treatment option is B) Air enema. This procedure involves using air pressure to push the telescoped bowel segments back into their normal position. The rationale behind why air enema is the right choice lies in its effectiveness as a non-invasive method that can often successfully resolve intussusception without the need for surgery. It is considered a first-line treatment due to its high success rates and lower risk of complications compared to surgical intervention. Contrast enema (option A) is another non-surgical option, but it involves using a contrast agent along with air or liquid to aid in diagnosis and treatment. Water enema (option C) is not typically used in the management of intussusception due to its lower success rates compared to air enema. Open surgery (option D) is usually reserved for cases where non-invasive methods have failed or in the presence of complications like bowel perforation. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate treatment options for intussusception is crucial for pediatric nurses and healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. Knowing when to recommend non-invasive methods like air or contrast enema versus surgical intervention can significantly impact patient outcomes and reduce the need for more invasive procedures. It is essential for healthcare professionals to stay updated on current guidelines and best practices in pediatric cardiovascular nursing to provide optimal care for their patients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, recognizing red flags for conditions like cerebral palsy is crucial for early intervention and management. In this case, the correct answer is C) Hand dominance. At 9 months, hand dominance is not typically established in infants, and its presence can indicate a compensatory mechanism for motor deficits seen in cerebral palsy. This is a key feature that should raise suspicion for the condition. Option A) Presence of Moro reflex is incorrect because the Moro reflex is a normal primitive reflex seen in infants up to around 6 months of age and its presence at 9 months is not indicative of cerebral palsy. Option B) Abductor spasm is not a typical feature of cerebral palsy in infants at 9 months. Option D) Grasp reflex is a normal developmental reflex in infants and its presence alone does not specifically point towards cerebral palsy. Educationally, understanding the significance of developmental milestones and abnormal findings is essential for pediatric healthcare providers. Recognizing subtle signs like hand dominance can lead to early referrals for further evaluation and intervention, potentially improving outcomes for children with cerebral palsy. This question highlights the importance of keen observation and knowledge of developmental norms in pediatric nursing practice.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric pharmacology, understanding the causes of non-bloody diarrhea is crucial for nurses to provide effective care. The correct answer, C) Giardia lamblia, is a protozoan parasite commonly found in contaminated water sources. Giardia infection often leads to non-bloody diarrhea due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, making it a significant cause to consider in pediatric patients presenting with these symptoms. Option A) Shigella dysentery typically causes bloody diarrhea, making it an incorrect choice for non-bloody diarrhea. Option B) Campylobacter jejuni is also associated with bloody diarrhea more frequently than non-bloody diarrhea, further highlighting its inaccuracy in this context. Option D) Salmonella infections can result in both bloody and non-bloody diarrhea; however, in the context of this question focusing on non-bloody diarrhea specifically, it is not the most appropriate choice. Educationally, nurses must be able to differentiate between various causes of diarrhea in pediatric patients to provide targeted treatment and management. Understanding the specific characteristics of each pathogen and its associated clinical presentation is essential for accurate assessment and intervention, ensuring optimal care for pediatric patients with gastrointestinal issues.