ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A Questions
Question 1 of 5
In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which potential side effect requires regular monitoring?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine, regular monitoring for agranulocytosis is essential. Agranulocytosis is a severe reduction in white blood cells that can be life-threatening. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent serious complications. Weight loss (Choice A) is not a common side effect of clozapine. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperthyroidism (Choice D) are also not typically associated with clozapine use, making them incorrect choices for regular monitoring.
Question 3 of 5
Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.
Question 4 of 5
When a patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed escitalopram, what potential side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insomnia. Escitalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly causes insomnia as a side effect. Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep when starting this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and hypertension are not typically associated with escitalopram use.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.
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