ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
In the scenario where a family member slips on the wet floor and hits her head, what hospital process requires completion of an incident report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In healthcare settings, completing an incident report is a crucial aspect of risk management. Risk management aims to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to prevent harm to patients, visitors, or staff. Incident reports provide valuable data for analyzing events, implementing corrective actions, and improving patient safety within the healthcare facility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because outcome management focuses on achieving desired results, quality management concentrates on maintaining high standards of care, and peer review involves evaluating the performance of healthcare providers, none of which directly relate to the completion of an incident report due to an accident.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following best describes the concept of patient autonomy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Patient autonomy refers to the right of patients to make their own healthcare decisions based on their values and preferences. It emphasizes the importance of respecting patients' rights to choose their treatment options, even if their decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. Choice B, the duty to do no harm, refers to the ethical principle of nonmaleficence. Choice C, the obligation to tell the truth, is related to the principle of veracity. Choice D, the responsibility to provide equitable care, pertains to the concept of justice in healthcare.
Question 3 of 9
In the scenario where a family member slips on the wet floor and hits her head, what hospital process requires completion of an incident report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In healthcare settings, completing an incident report is a crucial aspect of risk management. Risk management aims to identify, assess, and mitigate risks to prevent harm to patients, visitors, or staff. Incident reports provide valuable data for analyzing events, implementing corrective actions, and improving patient safety within the healthcare facility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because outcome management focuses on achieving desired results, quality management concentrates on maintaining high standards of care, and peer review involves evaluating the performance of healthcare providers, none of which directly relate to the completion of an incident report due to an accident.
Question 4 of 9
When a nurse reads a peer-reviewed nursing journal article recommending a change in caring for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter, which action demonstrates critical thinking?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Critical thinking involves evaluating information from various sources. In this scenario, the nurse displays critical thinking by seeking additional peer-reviewed articles that support the author's recommendation. This action ensures that decisions are based on a comprehensive understanding of the topic rather than relying solely on one source. By exploring other peer-reviewed articles, the nurse can validate the proposed change and make informed decisions regarding patient care. Choice A, implementing the article's recommendations, may not encompass a thorough evaluation of the information presented. Choice B, presenting the article to the nurse manager, is a valid step but does not directly involve critical analysis of the information. Choice D, disregarding the article, goes against the essence of critical thinking, which emphasizes the evaluation and consideration of various perspectives.
Question 5 of 9
What is typically the first sign that a healthcare professional with a substance abuse problem will exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Denial. When healthcare professionals have substance abuse problems, denial is often the initial sign they exhibit. Denial involves minimizing or refusing to acknowledge the issue, making it difficult to recognize and address the substance abuse problem. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoidance, bargaining, and regression are not typically the first signs displayed by healthcare professionals with substance abuse problems. By identifying denial early on, healthcare professionals can take the necessary steps to seek help and overcome substance abuse issues.
Question 6 of 9
If the nurse and nurse manager did not resolve the situation related to the physician's report about the nurse's performance, what is the length of time allowed for the nurse to submit an appeal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: If the informal discussion between the nurse and nurse manager does not resolve the issue regarding the physician's report on the nurse's performance, the nurse can submit a written appeal within 10 days, according to the health care facility policy. This 10-day timeframe ensures a prompt resolution of disputes and maintains clear communication channels within the healthcare setting. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the time limit allowed for the nurse to submit an appeal, which is specified to be 10 days.
Question 7 of 9
Several factors are considered in the calculation of the amount of FTEs. Which of the following is NOT considered when calculating the FTEs? (EXCEPT)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When calculating the Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs), factors such as the hours of work for the staff for two weeks, average daily census, and types of patients are considered. However, the hours of care provided are not typically included in the calculation of FTEs. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, ancillary staff, can impact FTE calculations as they contribute to the overall workload. Choice C, procedures to be done, can also influence FTE calculations, especially if they affect staffing requirements. Choice D, types of patients, play a role in determining the level of care needed and subsequently impact FTE calculations.
Question 8 of 9
The nursing assistant asks the nurse to explain the meaning of advocacy. The nurse explains the fundamental principle of patient advocacy is what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Protection is the fundamental principle of patient advocacy, ensuring that patients' rights and interests are safeguarded. Advocacy involves actively speaking up for the patient, ensuring they receive proper care, their wishes are respected, and they are protected from harm or exploitation. It goes beyond independence, caring, and competence, focusing on safeguarding the patient's well-being and ensuring their rights are upheld. While independence, caring, and competence are important aspects of patient care, they do not encompass the core principle of advocacy, which is to protect the patient's rights and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
While working in a long-term care facility, the nurse notices that older residents take pleasure in telling stories about their earlier lives and reliving special events. The nurse recognizes this helps residents meet which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of needs?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The act of telling stories and reliving special events by the older residents in the long-term care facility helps them achieve self-actualization. Self-actualization involves realizing personal potential, self-fulfillment, seeking personal growth, and reflecting on their lives and achievements, which aligns with the behavior observed by the nurse. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because self-esteem is related to confidence and respect, love and belonging refer to social relationships and connections, and safety pertains to physical and psychological security, which are not directly addressed by the residents' behavior of storytelling and reliving special events.