ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice D (Atelectasis) is correct: 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired lung function, increasing the risk of atelectasis. 2. Anemia can cause decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, contributing to atelectasis. 3. Volume contraction can lead to reduced lung expansion, further predisposing to atelectasis. Summary: - Choice A (Prolonged intubation): Intubation duration is more related to respiratory complications, not directly linked to the mentioned risk factors. - Choice B (Thromboembolism): Risk factors like immobility and hypercoagulability are more relevant to thromboembolism. - Choice C (Delayed wound healing): More associated with factors like malnutrition and impaired immune function rather than the mentioned risk factors.
Question 2 of 9
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient who reportedly fell down a flight of steps. Her history is significant for several emergency room visits, but she denies any significant medical conditions. Some documentation in her chart indicates that she may have been subjected to physical abuse. Today she presents with a periorbital ecchymosis of the left eye and swelling in the left side of the face. Her neurologic examination is within normal limits. Which head imaging study would be most useful in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT scan without contrast. A CT scan is the most useful imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. CT scan is preferred for acute trauma to the head as it provides detailed images of the brain, skull, and facial bones. It can detect acute hemorrhages, fractures, or other signs of trauma. In this case, the patient's presentation with periorbital ecchymosis and facial swelling raises suspicion for traumatic injury, which can be assessed effectively with a CT scan. Radiographs (choice A) are not as sensitive as CT scans in detecting subtle fractures or soft tissue injuries in the head and face. MRI (choice C) is not typically used in acute trauma assessment and may not provide timely information needed in this case. PET scan (choice D) is not indicated for evaluating traumatic head injuries and is more commonly used for assessing metabolic and functional activity in the body.
Question 3 of 9
Pneumatosis, or gas cysts, may form in the wall anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract in some cases, they will produce symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, diarrhea with mucus, and excess flatulence. Treatment of pneumatosis most often involves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the most effective treatment for pneumatosis as it helps to reduce gas cysts by increasing oxygen levels in the tissues. This promotes healing and resolution of the condition. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask - Regular oxygen therapy is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen in treating pneumatosis. C: Surgical resection - Surgical resection is not typically the first-line treatment for pneumatosis and is usually reserved for severe cases or complications. D: Treatment of underlying disease - While treating the underlying disease is important, it may not directly address the gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy targets the gas cysts specifically.
Question 4 of 9
Vaginal birth after caesarean section is known as
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trial of scar. This term specifically refers to the process of attempting a vaginal birth after a previous caesarean section. It involves monitoring the previous cesarean scar for any signs of complications during labor. A: Spontaneous vaginal delivery refers to giving birth vaginally without any previous cesarean section. C: Spontaneous vertex delivery simply describes the position of the baby's head during birth. D: Trial of birth is not a commonly used term in obstetrics and does not specifically relate to VBAC.
Question 5 of 9
A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elective lymph node dissection. This is because elective lymph node dissection helps to remove potentially cancerous lymph nodes, aiding in staging and ensuring complete tumor removal, thus improving the chances of curative surgery. En bloc resection (A) is important but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Adjuvant therapies (B) are used after surgery, not as the primary approach. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery to shrink tumors, not specifically for fixed tumors.
Question 6 of 9
Mechanism of labor in left occipito-posterior position:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation. In left occipito-posterior position, the fetus descends into the pelvis, engages in the maternal pelvis, undergoes flexion to fit through the birth canal, and internally rotates to align with the pelvis for delivery. Choice B (Extension, engagement, internal rotation, external rotation) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in occipito-posterior positions. Choice C (Flexion, descent, external rotation) is incorrect because external rotation is not part of the mechanism in this position. Choice D (Descent, engagement, extension) is incorrect because extension is not typically seen in this position.
Question 7 of 9
What are common complications of multiple gestations?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Multiple gestations are at higher risk for complications such as premature labor, where contractions start before 37 weeks, leading to preterm birth. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome can occur in identical twins sharing a placenta, causing unequal blood flow. Preeclampsia, characterized by high blood pressure and organ damage, is more common in multiple pregnancies. Therefore, all choices A, B, and C are correct as they are common complications associated with multiple gestations.
Question 8 of 9
Placenta praevia is also referred to as unavoidable haemorrhage because
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because placenta praevia can lead to severe bleeding during childbirth, posing high risks to both the mother and the baby. This condition occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix dilates during labor. Choice A is incorrect because bleeding in placenta praevia is not related to the segment preparing for labor. Choice B is incorrect as bleeding is primarily due to the abnormal placement of the placenta, not from pathological processes. Choice C is incorrect as bleeding can occur before 37 weeks in cases of placenta praevia.
Question 9 of 9
A client diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 24 weeks is scheduled for ANC care every
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Four weekly up to 28 weeks. Gestational diabetes requires close monitoring of blood sugar levels and fetal well-being. ANC care every four weeks up to 28 weeks ensures proper management and early detection of any complications. Weekly or two weekly visits (options A and B) may be too frequent and unnecessary at this stage unless there are specific concerns. Three weekly visits (option D) may not provide adequate monitoring intervals. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate choice for the optimal management of gestational diabetes at this stage of pregnancy.