ATI RN
Band 7 Midwifery Interview Questions and Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
In the preoperative assessment of a patient for the likelihood of postoperative risk, ascorbic acid deficiency, anemia, and volume contraction are all risk factors for
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D: Atelectasis): 1. Ascorbic acid deficiency can lead to impaired collagen synthesis, affecting lung tissue integrity. 2. Anemia reduces oxygen-carrying capacity, increasing the risk of lung collapse. 3. Volume contraction can lead to decreased lung compliance, predisposing to atelectasis. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Prolonged intubation is more related to airway issues, not specifically affected by the mentioned risk factors. B: Thromboembolism is more linked to blood clotting issues rather than the mentioned risk factors. C: Delayed wound healing is more influenced by nutritional deficiencies and blood flow, not directly linked to lung complications like atelectasis.
Question 2 of 9
Mrs. Coates is a 65-year-old female who is on postoperative day 1 following a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer. She had an uneventful immediate postoperative course, but throughout the course of day 1 she has complained of a mild abdominal discomfort that has progressed throughout the day. This evening the AGACNP is called to the bedside to evaluate the patient for persistent and progressive discomfort. Likely causes of her symptoms include all of the following except
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric retention. Mrs. Coates' symptoms of persistent and progressive discomfort are not likely due to gastric retention because she underwent a duodenal resection for a bleeding ulcer, which would bypass the stomach. Therefore, gastric retention is not a possible cause. A: Colic due to return of peristalsis is a possible cause as peristalsis returning after surgery can cause discomfort. B: Leakage from the duodenal stump is a possible cause as it can lead to abdominal discomfort postoperatively. D: Hemorrhage is a possible cause given her history of bleeding ulcer and surgery.
Question 3 of 9
Neonate born of a diabetic mother is fed within the first 15 minutes to prevent
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycaemia. Neonates born to diabetic mothers are at risk of hypoglycaemia due to high insulin levels in utero. Feeding the newborn within the first 15 minutes helps maintain blood glucose levels. Hypocalcaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypokalaemia are not typically immediate concerns in neonates born to diabetic mothers.
Question 4 of 9
Hepatic encephalopathy is a clinical syndrome seen in patients with chronic liver disease its presentation may range from mild personality changes, to psychosis, to coma. The primary chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy include all of the following except
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. Ammonia is a primary chemical mediator of hepatic encephalopathy. In patients with chronic liver disease, the liver's ability to detoxify ammonia is compromised, leading to its accumulation in the bloodstream and subsequent neurotoxic effects causing encephalopathy. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), false neurotransmitters, and serotonin are all implicated in the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy. GABA is involved in neurotransmission, false neurotransmitters are substances that disrupt normal neurotransmission, and serotonin levels are altered in hepatic encephalopathy.
Question 5 of 9
A medical/obstetric predisposing factor to puerperal sepsis includes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Emergency cesarean section. Emergency cesarean sections can increase the risk of puerperal sepsis due to the urgency of the procedure, which may lead to inadequate sterilization or contamination. Other choices are less directly associated with puerperal sepsis: A may increase the risk of infection, but not specifically puerperal sepsis. C relates to general hygiene practices and D focuses on delays in seeking care, which may affect treatment outcomes but are not direct predisposing factors to puerperal sepsis.
Question 6 of 9
A condition of trial of scar is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Not more than two previous caesarean section scars. This is because a trial of scar refers to a trial of labor in a woman who has had previous cesarean sections. The guideline typically recommends that a trial of scar should be considered in women with no more than two previous cesarean section scars to reduce the risk of uterine rupture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the estimated fetal weight, availability of a level one hospital, and pelvis size are not specific criteria used to determine eligibility for a trial of scar.
Question 7 of 9
Clinical features of facial palsy are
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reduced facial movement is a key clinical feature of facial palsy. This can lead to difficulty in making facial expressions, closing the eye on the affected side, and drooping of the mouth. Irritability may also occur due to discomfort or difficulty in communication. Choice A is incorrect because inability to feed and excessive cry are not typical features of facial palsy. Choice C is incorrect as excessively dry eyeball and feeding difficulties are not commonly associated with facial palsy. Choice D is incorrect as eyes being permanently open and no facial movement are not characteristic of facial palsy.
Question 8 of 9
enna is a 41-year-old female who presents to the emergency room complaining of sudden hearing loss. She is generally very healthyshe denies any significant medical history, and her only daily medication is a combined oral contraceptive. She does admit that she is just getting over a head cold, but other than that she offers no relevant history. A comprehensive history and physical examination results in a diagnosis of sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) of unknown origin. The AGACNP knows that the next step in the patients management should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperbaric oxygen. SSHL is a medical emergency that requires prompt intervention. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases oxygen delivery to the inner ear, potentially reversing the hearing loss. Acyclovir (A) is used for viral infections, not SSHL. Furosemide (B) is a diuretic used for treating fluid retention, not SSHL. Warfarin (C) is an anticoagulant and is not indicated for SSHL. In summary, hyperbaric oxygen is the appropriate choice for managing SSHL due to its potential to improve oxygen delivery to the inner ear.
Question 9 of 9
The AGACNP knows that treatment for this likely will include
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Observation. As an AGACNP, observation is crucial for monitoring the progression of the condition before considering any invasive treatments. Hyperextension casting (B) and Jewett brace (C) are more specific interventions for spinal conditions and not typically indicated for this scenario. Surgical intervention (D) is typically considered only if conservative treatments fail, making it a last resort option. Therefore, observation allows for a conservative approach to assess the patient's response to initial management before considering more aggressive interventions.