ATI RN
Nursing Process Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In the operating room, personnel should be responsible for ensuring cleanliness, proper temperature, humidity, and lighting. Who carries those responsibilities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: circulating nurse. The circulating nurse is responsible for maintaining cleanliness, ensuring proper temperature, humidity, and lighting in the operating room. They coordinate activities, manage supplies, and ensure a safe environment for the surgical team. The scrub nurse assists the surgeon with instruments and supplies, not environmental conditions. The surgeon's main focus is on performing the surgery, not environmental management. The anesthesiologist is responsible for administering anesthesia and monitoring the patient's vital signs, not the operating room environment.
Question 2 of 9
A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. PSA is a protein produced by the prostate gland, and elevated levels may indicate prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect as PSA is specific to the prostate, not protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as pneumococcal strep antigen is related to pneumonia, not PSA. Choice D is incorrect as Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term, and PSA is not used to screen for cervical cancer.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is classified as subjective data in a nursing assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because subjective data in a nursing assessment refers to information provided by the patient, such as feelings, perceptions, and symptoms. In this case, the client stating 'I feel nauseated' represents subjective data. This type of information cannot be measured or observed directly. A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Heart rate of 90 beats per minute is an objective measurement that can be directly observed. C: Blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg is also an objective measurement that can be directly observed. D: Skin appears flushed is an objective observation that can be directly seen.
Question 4 of 9
.A client complains of urinary discomfort and a burning sensation while urinating. A urethral smear shows evidence of urethritis, and the client is prescribed antibiotics and instructed to drink 2-3 L of water daily. For which of the ff reasons is the client advised to drink the specified amount of water?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Antibiotics are prescribed to treat urethritis, indicating a bacterial infection in the urinary tract. Step 2: Increasing water intake (2-3 L daily) promotes renal blood flow, dilutes urine, and helps flush out bacteria from the urinary tract, aiding in the elimination of infection. Step 3: Adequate hydration helps prevent the formation of concentrated urine, reducing the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections. Step 4: Therefore, choice B is correct as it directly addresses the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Summary: Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly target the bacterial infection causing the urinary discomfort. Drinking water will not specifically help with incontinence, eliminate odors, or provide pain relief.
Question 5 of 9
A client with colon cancer requires a permanent colostomy because of the tumor location. After surgery, the client must learn how to irrigate the colostomy. When irrigating, how far into the stoma should the client insert the lubricated catheter?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 1” to 1.5”. When irrigating a colostomy, the client should insert the lubricated catheter about 1” to 1.5” into the stoma. This depth allows for effective irrigation of the colon without causing discomfort or damage. Inserting the catheter too shallow (choice A) may not reach the colon, while inserting it too deep (choices B and D) can cause injury or perforation. Therefore, the optimal depth of 1” to 1.5” ensures proper irrigation while minimizing risks of complications.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse assesses a client shortly after kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine output of 20mL/hour. This is a critical finding after kidney transplant surgery as it indicates potential kidney dysfunction or acute kidney injury. Decreased urine output can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, which can be life-threatening. Immediate physician notification is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate danger. Serum potassium level of 4.9mEq/L is slightly elevated but not critical. Temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) is within normal limits for postoperative care. Serum sodium level of 135mEq/L is also normal and does not warrant immediate physician notification.
Question 7 of 9
Choose the condition th₃a⁻t exhibits blood values with a low pH and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by low pH and low plasma bicarbonate. 2. In this condition, there is an excess of acids or a loss of bicarbonate. 3. The kidneys are unable to adequately excrete acids or retain bicarbonate. 4. This leads to a decrease in bicarbonate levels and a decrease in pH. 5. Respiratory acidosis (A) is characterized by low pH and high CO2 levels. 6. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low CO2 levels. 7. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as it describes a condition with high CO2 levels. - Choice C is incorrect as it describes a condition with high pH. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes a condition with high bicarbonate levels. - Choice B is correct as it accurately describes the characteristics of a condition with low pH
Question 8 of 9
Nurse Lina gives discharge instructions to Aling Maria, who is experiencing an exacerbation of COPD because of an upper respiratory tract infection, regarding her diet at home. Which of the following food choices would be appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: high calorie high protein. In COPD exacerbation, the body requires extra calories and protein for energy and muscle strength. High-calorie foods help combat weight loss and fatigue. High-protein foods aid in muscle repair and maintenance. Low-fat low-cholesterol (A) is not ideal as healthy fats are needed. Low-sodium (B) is not necessary unless there is concurrent heart failure. Bland soft diet (C) is not suitable as it does not provide enough calories and protein needed for COPD exacerbation.
Question 9 of 9
After assessing a patient, a nurse develops a standard formal nursing diagnosis. What is the rationale for the nurse’s actions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: To help nurses focus on the scope of medical practice. Developing a standard formal nursing diagnosis helps nurses to identify and focus on the patient's specific health issues within the nursing scope of practice. This enables nurses to provide targeted and effective care interventions. A: To form a language that can be encoded only by nurses - This choice is incorrect because the purpose of a nursing diagnosis is not exclusive to nurses and should be comprehensible to all healthcare professionals caring for the patient. B: To distinguish the nurse’s role from the physician’s role - While this distinction is important, the main purpose of developing a nursing diagnosis is to guide nursing interventions based on the patient's nursing care needs, rather than solely differentiating roles. C: To develop clinical judgment based on other’s intuition - This choice is incorrect as clinical judgment should be based on evidence-based practice and critical thinking, rather than solely relying on intuition or others' opinions.