In the nursing diagnosis 'Disturbed Self-Esteem related to presence of large scar over left side of face,' what part of the nursing diagnosis is 'presence of large scar over left side of face'?

Questions 71

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

In the nursing diagnosis 'Disturbed Self-Esteem related to presence of large scar over left side of face,' what part of the nursing diagnosis is 'presence of large scar over left side of face'?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Etiology. Etiology in a nursing diagnosis refers to the cause or contributing factors of the identified problem. In this case, the large scar over the left side of the face is the reason for the disturbed self-esteem. It is the underlying factor that is leading to the self-esteem issue. The problem itself is the disturbed self-esteem, the defining characteristics are the signs and symptoms that support the diagnosis, and client need is the desired outcome or goal for the client. In summary, the presence of the large scar is the cause or etiology of the disturbed self-esteem, making it the correct choice.

Question 2 of 9

The new nurse is caring for six patients in this shift. After completing their assessments, the nurse asks where to begin in developing care plans for these patients. Which statement is an appropriate suggestion by another nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Begin with the highest priority diagnoses, then select appropriate interventions." Rationale: 1. Start with the highest priority diagnoses: Prioritizing care based on the patients' most critical needs ensures their safety and well-being. 2. Identify appropriate interventions: Select interventions that directly address the priority diagnoses to promote effective care delivery. 3. Tailor interventions to individual needs: By focusing on high-priority diagnoses, the nurse can personalize care plans for each patient. 4. Ensure efficient use of resources: Addressing critical issues first optimizes time and resources for the most impactful outcomes. Summary: A: Incorrect. Performing interventions based on time needed may not address the most critical patient needs. B: Incorrect. While scientific rationale is important, it should come after identifying priority diagnoses. C: Incorrect. Setting goals and outcomes should follow the identification of high-priority diagnoses for effective care planning.

Question 3 of 9

A client asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse should reply that is stands for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland. It is primarily used to screen for prostate cancer by measuring the levels of PSA in the blood. PSA levels can help detect prostate cancer early. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes PSA and its primary use. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Protein serum antigen is not a commonly known term in healthcare. There is no specific antigen called "protein serum antigen" used to determine protein levels. C: Pneumococcal strep antigen is a bacterial antigen that causes pneumonia, not related to PSA used in prostate cancer screening. D: Papanicolua-specific antigen is not a recognized term. The Papanicolaou test (Pap smear) is used for cervical cancer screening, not a specific antigen like PSA.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse has already set the agenda during a patient-centered interview. What will the nurse do next?

Correct Answer:

Rationale: Correct Answer: B: Ask about the chief concerns or problems. Rationale: 1. Asking about chief concerns helps to focus the interview on the patient's needs. 2. It demonstrates active listening and empathy. 3. Allows the nurse to prioritize issues and provide appropriate care. 4. Introductions are already done, and ending the interview abruptly or mentioning medication timing is not patient-centered.

Question 5 of 9

A client was brought to the school clinic wuth severe, constant, localized abdominal pain. Abdominal muscles are rigid, and rebound tenderness is present. Peritonitis is suspected. The client is hypotensive and tachycardic. The nursing diagnosis most appropriate to the client’s signs/symptoms is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: fluid volume deficit related to depletion of intravascular volume. Peritonitis causes inflammation of the peritoneum, leading to fluid shifting into the peritoneal cavity, causing hypovolemia. Hypotension and tachycardia are signs of decreased intravascular volume. Rigid abdominal muscles and rebound tenderness indicate peritoneal irritation. Choice B is incorrect because elevated ammonia levels are not associated with the client's symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because increased peristalsis does not explain the client's hypotension and tachycardia. Choice D is incorrect because malabsorption does not align with the client's acute presentation of severe abdominal pain and peritonitis.

Question 6 of 9

An unconscious patient is brought to the emergency department. Which of the following assessments should be implemented first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client’s airway should be assessed first. This is because airway management is the top priority in any emergency situation to ensure the patient can breathe. Without a patent airway, the patient's oxygenation and ventilation will be compromised, leading to serious complications or death. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the airway takes precedence over determining the reason for admission, reviewing medications, or assessing past medical history in an unconscious patient. These other assessments are important but not as critical as securing the airway to maintain the patient's breathing and oxygenation.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the ff is the most important factor in the nursing management of clients who undergo treatment for a malignant tumor ff the urinary diversion procedure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Observing for leakage of urine or stool from the anastomosis. This is crucial in nursing management post-urinary diversion procedure to prevent complications such as infection, dehydration, and skin breakdown. Leakage can indicate issues with the surgical site integrity and requires prompt intervention. A: Placement of IV and central venous pressure lines is important but not as critical as monitoring for leakage from the anastomosis. B: Administering cleansing enemas may be necessary for certain procedures but is not the most important factor in this case. D: Assessing the client's ability to manage self-catheterization is important for long-term care but does not take precedence over monitoring for potential complications like leakage. In summary, option C is the most important factor as it directly impacts the client's immediate post-operative care and helps prevent serious complications.

Question 8 of 9

Wilma knew that James have an adequate respiratory condition if she notices that

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically between 12-20 breaths per minute. A respiratory rate of 18 falls within this range, indicating adequate respiratory function. Choice B is incorrect because an oxygen saturation of 91% is below the normal range of 95-100%, suggesting potential respiratory insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as frank blood suction from the tube indicates a serious issue such as bleeding, not adequate respiratory condition. Choice D is also incorrect as the presence of a moderate amount of tracheobronchial secretions may indicate a respiratory infection or other respiratory issue, not necessarily adequate respiratory condition.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with a spinal cord injury is seeking to enhance urinary elimination abilities by learning self- catheterization versus assisted catheterization by home health nurses and family members. The nurse adds Readiness for enhanced urinary elimination in the care plan. Which type of diagnosis did the nurse write?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Health promotion. In this scenario, the nurse identified the patient's desire to enhance urinary elimination abilities through self-catheterization, indicating a readiness for positive change. Health promotion diagnoses focus on improving well-being and enhancing quality of life. This diagnosis supports the patient's proactive approach to managing their condition. Incorrect choices: A: Risk - This diagnosis would be used if the patient was at risk for complications related to urinary elimination, not actively seeking to improve it. B: Problem focused - This type of diagnosis would be used if the patient was experiencing issues with urinary elimination that needed to be addressed. D: Collaborative problem - This diagnosis would involve identifying a problem that requires collaboration between healthcare professionals to resolve, which is not the case in this scenario.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days