ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.
Question 2 of 5
In the majority of cases, the first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. The first clinical manifestation of physiologic stress ulcer is often a fever due to the body's response to stress. This is because stress can trigger an inflammatory response, leading to an increase in body temperature. Epigastric pain (choice A) is more commonly associated with peptic ulcers. Change in mental status (choice B) is not a typical early symptom of physiologic stress ulcer. Hemorrhage (choice D) is a severe complication that can occur later in the course of the disease, but it is not typically the first clinical manifestation.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements is true with respect to adrenal tumors that produce gender symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Feminizing adrenal tumors are not always carcinomas, so A is incorrect. Step 2: Virilizing tumors in women can originate from adrenal or extra-adrenal sites, so C is incorrect. Step 3: Virilizing adrenal tumors are usually benign, especially in children, so D is incorrect. Step 4: B is correct as feminizing adrenal tumors are rare but are the most common type of adrenal tumor causing gender symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
The fetal head retracting against the perineum is a
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turtle sign. This occurs when the fetal head retracts against the perineum during delivery, resembling a turtle retracting into its shell. This indicates fetal shoulder dystocia, a serious complication. Gaskin sign (A) refers to the position of the mother during labor. Klumpke sign (C) is related to brachial plexus injuries during delivery. Chignon sign (D) is not a recognized term in obstetrics.
Question 5 of 5
When counseling a patient about treatment modalities for achalasia, the AGACNP advised that which of the following is the treatment of choice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients. Summary for other choices: B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice. C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective. D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.