In the following benzodiazepines used as intravenous general anaesthetic which one has a more rapid onset and shorter half life

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CNS Pharmacology Drug Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

In the following benzodiazepines used as intravenous general anaesthetic which one has a more rapid onset and shorter half life

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Midazolam. Midazolam is preferred over other benzodiazepines like Diazepam and Lorazepam for intravenous general anesthesia due to its rapid onset and shorter half-life. Midazolam has a quick onset of action, making it ideal for procedures requiring sedation or anesthesia. Its short half-life allows for better control of sedation levels and reduces the risk of prolonged sedative effects post-procedure. This pharmacokinetic profile makes Midazolam a safer and more effective choice for anesthesia compared to Diazepam and Lorazepam. Diazepam (option A) and Lorazepam (option B) have longer half-lives and slower onset of action compared to Midazolam, making them less suitable for rapid sedation or anesthesia induction. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological differences between benzodiazepines used for anesthesia is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in procedural sedation or anesthesia administration. Knowing the specific characteristics of each drug helps ensure patient safety and optimal sedation outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

Regarding the antiepileptic drugs, which statement is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Phenytoin is able to stimulate its own metabolism by enzyme induction. This statement is true because Phenytoin is known to induce the activity of hepatic enzymes, particularly CYP450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of not only itself but also other drugs that are substrates for these enzymes. This phenomenon can result in decreased plasma concentrations of co-administered medications, potentially impacting their efficacy. Option A is incorrect because Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine primarily used for managing anxiety and acute seizures, not absence seizures. Option C is incorrect as Valproate does have a large volume of distribution, but typically around 0.5-1 L/kg, not >500L/70kg. Option D is incorrect because the most common dose-related adverse effects of Carbamazepine are not ataxia and diplopia; instead, they are dizziness, drowsiness, and nausea. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacokinetic properties of antiepileptic drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to optimize therapy and minimize adverse effects. Knowledge of enzyme induction by drugs like Phenytoin can help in predicting and managing drug interactions in patients with epilepsy or other conditions requiring polypharmacy. It is essential for healthcare providers to stay updated on the latest information regarding drug pharmacology to ensure safe and effective patient care.

Question 3 of 5

The main side effect of benztropine is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Benztropine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotic medications. The main side effect of benztropine is confusion (Option B). This is due to its ability to cross the blood-brain barrier and exert its anticholinergic effects centrally. By blocking the action of acetylcholine in the brain, benztropine can lead to confusion, memory impairment, and cognitive disturbances. Option A, Miosis, is incorrect because benztropine actually causes mydriasis (dilation of the pupils) as an anticholinergic effect. Option C, Diarrhea, and Option D, GIT hemorrhage, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of benztropine. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of medications used in CNS pharmacology is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug therapy. It is important to be aware of the specific side effects of medications like benztropine to effectively manage patient care and potential adverse effects. This knowledge helps in optimizing therapeutic outcomes and ensuring patient safety.

Question 4 of 5

A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of blurry vision, vomiting, and excessive sweating after splashing herself with carbamate insecticide while gardening. Her condition improves after administration of atropine. Which of the following is true of competitive antagonists?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) For enzymes \( K_m \) is unchanged. Competitive antagonists, like atropine in this case, compete with the natural ligand for binding to the receptor site. In the context of enzymes, competitive antagonists bind to the active site of the enzyme, thereby preventing the substrate from binding. However, these antagonists do not affect the maximum velocity of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction, nor do they alter the \( K_m \) value. \( K_m \) is a constant that represents the substrate concentration at which an enzyme works at half of its maximum velocity. In the presence of a competitive antagonist, the enzyme can still reach its maximum velocity; hence, \( K_m \) remains unchanged. Regarding the incorrect options: A) Competitive antagonists do not decrease the efficacy of proteins they bind to; they only compete for binding without affecting the intrinsic activity. B) Competitive antagonists do not decrease the potency of proteins they bind to; potency refers to the drug concentration required to produce a specific effect, which is not altered by competitive antagonists. D) Competitive antagonists can be overcome by increasing the concentration of the protein's native ligand or substrate because they compete for binding reversibly. Understanding the mechanism of competitive antagonists is crucial in pharmacology to predict and manage drug interactions and their effects on enzyme kinetics. This knowledge aids in prescribing appropriate therapies and understanding the underlying principles of drug action.

Question 5 of 5

A 43-year-old man is stabbed in the chest and is brought to the emergency department for evaluation. Because of hemodynamic instability, he is brought to the operating room for thoracotomy. An adequate anesthesia history could not be obtained from the patient. No family member was present at the time of surgery. Upon induction of anesthesia with succinylcholine, the patient's heart rate increased to 150 beats/minute and experienced muscular rigidity. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Dantrolene. In this scenario, the patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia (MH), which is a rare but life-threatening reaction to certain medications used during anesthesia, such as succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the specific antidote for MH and works by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscles, thereby reducing muscle contraction and hypermetabolism. Option B) Rapid warming with blanket is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is MH, and could potentially worsen the situation by increasing metabolic demand. Option C) Sodium bicarbonate administered intravenously is incorrect as it is not the appropriate treatment for MH. Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat metabolic acidosis, which may occur as a result of MH, but it does not directly address the MH crisis. Option D) Succinylcholine intravenous drip at steady state is incorrect as it would exacerbate the symptoms of MH since succinylcholine is the trigger for this condition. Administering more succinylcholine would only worsen the patient's condition. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those involved in anesthesia administration, to be aware of the signs and treatment of MH. Prompt recognition and treatment with dantrolene can be life-saving in such situations. Training in MH protocols and having dantrolene readily available in operating rooms are essential to managing this rare but potentially fatal complication of anesthesia.

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