In taking the patient's history from the mother, the nurse should ask the mother information related to the daughters' __________.

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Question 1 of 9

In taking the patient's history from the mother, the nurse should ask the mother information related to the daughters' __________.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should ask the mother information related to their daughter's menarche. Menarche refers to the first occurrence of menstruation in a girl, which is an important milestone in her development. By inquiring about the daughter's menarche, the nurse can gather essential information about the daughter's reproductive health, growth, and development. This allows the nurse to assess whether the daughter's menstrual cycle is regular and if there are any concerns related to her reproductive health. Understanding the daughter's menarche history is vital in providing appropriate healthcare and support for her.

Question 2 of 9

A patient with a history of sickle cell disease presents with severe abdominal pain, fever, and jaundice. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, reticulocytosis, elevated indirect bilirubin, and presence of Howell-Jolly bodies on peripheral blood smear. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acute splenic sequestration crisis is a complication seen in patients with sickle cell disease characterized by the sudden pooling of sickled red blood cells in the spleen, leading to splenic enlargement, severe anemia, and hypovolemic shock. This pooling results in a rapid drop in hemoglobin levels, causing anemia. The spleen's sequestration of large numbers of red blood cells can cause a sudden rise in the number of immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) in the blood (reticulocytosis). The destruction of these trapped red blood cells in the spleen leads to hemolysis, evidenced by elevated indirect bilirubin levels and the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants of erythrocytes) on peripheral blood smear. Patients may present with severe abdominal pain, fever, jaundice, and signs of hemodynamic instability, which

Question 3 of 9

A patient presents with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST-segment depression. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient is presenting with chest pain that worsens with exertion and improves with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina. Additionally, ST-segment depression on ECG is a common finding in patients with stable angina. Stable angina is typically caused by coronary artery disease, which leads to partial obstruction of the coronary arteries resulting in inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle during periods of increased demand (such as exertion). The chest pain is usually predictable and reproducible, occurring with similar intensity and duration during episodes of exertion. Rest or nitroglycerin can help relieve the symptoms by increasing coronary blood flow. It is important to differentiate stable angina from unstable angina and acute myocardial infarction, which have different management and prognostic implications.

Question 4 of 9

A patient is having elective surgery under general anesthesia. Who is responsible for obtaining the informed-consent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The primary responsibility for obtaining informed consent lies with the surgeon who will be performing the procedure. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the procedure, benefits, risks, and alternatives to the patient, allowing them to make an informed decision about their care. While other healthcare team members may also participate in this process, the ultimate responsibility typically rests with the surgeon as they are the one performing the surgery.

Question 5 of 9

Mrs. Carpio has an order of Thiazide diuretics for her edema. The following is the entry that you expect to be written in her progress report EXCEPT ______.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The entry you expect to be written in Mrs. Carpio's progress report should include details related to monitoring her response to the Thiazide diuretics and ensuring her safety. Options A, B, and C all focus on these aspects by monitoring serum electrolytes, intake and output, and weight before drug administration, which are important considerations when a patient is on Thiazide diuretics. However, specifying the time of drug administration (8 o'clock in the evening) is not necessary in the progress report entry. The focus should be on the patient's response to the medication and the associated monitoring parameters. Time of administration is more relevant for nursing care plans or medication schedules.

Question 6 of 9

When documenting the procedures done, which of the following should NOT be recorded?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In documenting procedures, it is essential to record information that is relevant to the specific procedure done. Recording the date (A), lot number (C), and needle gauge (D) are critical details that provide important context and traceability for the procedure performed. The date helps to keep track of when the procedure was conducted. The lot number is essential for tracking the specific batch of materials used in the procedure. The needle gauge is important for ensuring the appropriate equipment is used for the procedure. However, recording the manufacturer (B) is not necessary for documenting the procedures as it does not directly impact the quality or traceability of the procedure itself.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is aware that a major difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non- Hodgkin's lymphoma is that:_________________

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: One of the major differences between Hodgkin's lymphoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is that Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable, while non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is typically not curable. Hodgkin's lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are not found in non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Additionally, Hodgkin's lymphoma tends to spread in a more orderly and predictable manner through the lymph nodes, making it easier to treat and potentially cure with the appropriate combination of chemotherapy, radiation therapy, and stem cell transplant. On the other hand, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is a diverse group of lymphomas that can vary greatly in presentation, behavior, and response to treatment, with some subtypes being more aggressive and resistant to treatment. Therefore, the potential for cure is higher in Hodgkin's lymphoma compared to non-Hodgkin's lymph

Question 8 of 9

A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with periorbital edema, hypertension, and proteinuria. Laboratory findings reveal elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms presented (periorbital edema, hypertension, proteinuria) along with the laboratory findings (elevated creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis) are classical signs of chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, the kidneys gradually lose their function over time, leading to impaired filtration of waste products and electrolyte imbalance. The presence of hypertension and proteinuria are common in CKD due to the compromised renal function. Additionally, elevated serum creatinine and urea levels, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis are indicative of kidney dysfunction.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) presents with excessive daytime sleepiness, loud snoring, and witnessed apneic episodes during sleep. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for managing OSA and improving symptoms?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: CPAP therapy is considered the gold standard treatment for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) and is the most appropriate intervention for managing OSA and improving symptoms. CPAP therapy involves using a machine that delivers a continuous flow of air through a mask worn over the nose or mouth during sleep. This air pressure helps keep the airway open, preventing the collapse that causes apneas and snoring during sleep.

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