ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
In severe renal failure:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In severe renal failure, the clearance of digoxin is reduced, requiring smaller maintenance doses to avoid toxicity.
Question 2 of 5
Epinephrine can compromise the stability of formed blood clot because it is a:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine can compromise the stability of a formed blood clot because it is a fibrinolytic agent. Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, the main protein component of blood clots, and promoting the dissolution of the clot. Epinephrine is a hormone that acts on adrenergic receptors, including beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which can trigger the activation of fibrinolysis pathways. By promoting fibrinolysis, epinephrine can weaken and compromise the stability of a formed blood clot, leading to potential clot breakdown and increased risk of bleeding. This mechanism is important to consider when using epinephrine in situations where clot stability is crucial, such as in patients with bleeding disorders or undergoing surgery.
Question 3 of 5
The student nurse asks the nursing instructor why drug plateaus occur with medications. What are the best responses by the nursing instructor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Plateaus occur when receptors are saturated-max effect is reached (e.g., morphine), a pharmacodynamic limit. 100% relief isn't guaranteed-plateau is effect ceiling. Resistance (tolerance) builds over time, not instant. Losing efficacy implies degradation, not saturation. Receptor occupancy explains the plateau, a core concept.
Question 4 of 5
A client with myasthenia gravis frequently complains of weakness and fatigue. The physician plans to identify whether the client is responding to an overdose of the medication or a worsening of the disease. A tensilon test is performed. Which of the following would indicate that the client is experiencing an overdose of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a Tensilon test, edrophonium chloride is administered to differentiate between myasthenic crisis (worsening of the disease) and cholinergic crisis (overdose of medication). A temporary worsening of symptoms, such as increased weakness, indicates a cholinergic crisis due to an overdose of anticholinesterase medications. Improvement suggests myasthenic crisis, while no change is inconclusive. Muscle spasms are not specific to an overdose. Therefore, worsening symptoms indicate an overdose.
Question 5 of 5
A 52-year-old man with organic impotence is in the preoperative holding area before surgery. He is given intravenous vancomycin over 20 min and begins to develop fever, chills, and redness at the injection site. What is the most appropriate course of action for the physician to take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin's rapid infusion causes red man syndrome (fever, chills, redness) is discontinue . Anticholinesterase is irrelevant. Corticosteroids treat severe reactions, not initial step. Intubation is excessive. Slowing infusion (E) is preventive, not reactive. Stopping vancomycin halts histamine release, resolving symptoms.