ATI RN
FNP Pediatric Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In pediatric rhabdomyosarcoma, stages are dependent on primary site whether favorable or unfavorable. Which of the following sites of involvement is considered unfavorable?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric rhabdomyosarcoma, the primary site of involvement plays a crucial role in determining the stage and prognosis of the disease. In this case, the correct answer is D) paranasal sinuses, as involvement of this site is considered unfavorable. Rhabdomyosarcoma arising in the paranasal sinuses is associated with a higher risk of local invasion, difficulty in complete surgical resection, and a propensity for metastasis. The proximity of this site to critical structures in the head and neck region also contributes to the challenging nature of managing tumors in this location. Regarding the other options: A) Vagina: Rhabdomyosarcoma in the vagina is categorized as an intermediate-risk site. B) Uterus: Uterine involvement is also considered an intermediate-risk site. C) Testis: Testicular rhabdomyosarcoma is classified as a favorable site with a relatively better prognosis compared to involvement of paranasal sinuses. Educationally, understanding the risk stratification based on primary site in pediatric rhabdomyosarcoma is essential for healthcare providers caring for pediatric patients. This knowledge guides treatment decisions, prognostication, and follow-up care, emphasizing the importance of accurate staging and risk assessment in managing this rare pediatric malignancy.
Question 2 of 5
A 12-year-old male adolescent, recently diagnosed with Hodgkin lymphoma, shows left cervical and supraclavicular lymph node involvement and drenching night sweats. Based on Ann Arbor Classification, the patient is classified as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) stage IIB. According to the Ann Arbor Classification system for staging Hodgkin lymphoma, stage IIB indicates involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm. Option A) stage IA is incorrect because it represents involvement of a single lymph node region. Option B) stage IB is also incorrect as it denotes involvement of a single lymph node region and the adjacent or nearby tissue. Option C) stage IIA is not applicable in this scenario as it signifies involvement of two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm without systemic symptoms. Educationally, understanding the staging of Hodgkin lymphoma is crucial for healthcare providers, especially for nurse practitioners working in pediatric oncology. It guides treatment decisions, prognosis, and follow-up care. This question reinforces the importance of knowing the Ann Arbor Classification system and applying it to determine the extent of disease in pediatric patients with Hodgkin lymphoma.
Question 3 of 5
Biopsy is not usually performed for a child with suspicion of Wilms tumor EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric oncology, a biopsy is not usually performed for a child with suspicion of Wilms tumor if there is intratumoral calcification radiologically. This is because the presence of intratumoral calcification is a characteristic feature of Wilms tumor, and biopsies are typically not necessary in cases where the imaging findings are highly suggestive of this specific type of tumor. Option A, the age of 2-3 years, is not a reason to avoid biopsy as Wilms tumor commonly presents in this age group. Option B, signs of inflammation or infection, are not relevant to the decision-making process for performing a biopsy in the context of Wilms tumor suspicion. Option C, significant lymph node enlargement radiologically, may prompt further investigation but is not a definitive factor in deciding against a biopsy for Wilms tumor. From an educational standpoint, understanding the typical imaging findings and clinical presentation of Wilms tumor is crucial for healthcare providers working in pediatric oncology. This knowledge aids in making informed decisions about the need for biopsies and helps in the timely and accurate diagnosis of pediatric cancers. It also underscores the importance of interpreting radiological findings in the context of specific pediatric malignancies to guide appropriate management strategies.
Question 4 of 5
A 3-day-old neonate has a large, soft, painless mass involving the head and neck region that mostly transilluminate; CT scan reveals a cystic mass involving the neck and intrathoracic mediastinum. The BEST modality for treatment of this neonate is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) surgical resection for the large, soft, painless mass involving the head and neck region in the 3-day-old neonate. This presentation is consistent with a congenital cystic hygroma, a benign lymphatic malformation that often involves the neck and mediastinum. Surgical resection is the best modality for definitive treatment as it allows for complete removal of the cystic mass and prevents potential complications such as infection, hemorrhage, and airway compromise. Option B) injection sclerosing agent is not the best choice in this case as the cystic hygroma is large and involves critical anatomical structures in the head and neck region. Sclerosing agents may not be effective in completely resolving such a mass. Option C) laser therapy is not appropriate for treating a large cystic hygroma involving both the neck and mediastinum. Laser therapy is more commonly used for superficial lesions and may not adequately address the extent of the lesion in this case. Option D) systemic interferon therapy is not typically used as a first-line treatment for congenital cystic hygromas. Surgical resection is preferred over systemic therapies for definitive management of such lesions. In an educational context, understanding the appropriate treatment modalities for different pediatric conditions is crucial for nurse practitioners working in pediatric settings. Recognizing the characteristics of congenital cystic hygromas and knowing the optimal management approach helps ensure timely and effective care for pediatric patients.
Question 5 of 5
The major pharmacologic action of albuterol sulfate (Proventil HFA) is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Albuterol sulfate (Proventil HFA) is a bronchodilator primarily used to treat bronchospasm in conditions like asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The major pharmacologic action of albuterol sulfate is option D, relaxing constricted bronchial smooth muscle. This medication acts on beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs, leading to the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, which in turn dilates the airways, making it easier for the individual to breathe. Option A is incorrect because albuterol does not directly decrease airway reactivity; instead, it relaxes the smooth muscles in the airways. Option B is incorrect because albuterol does not primarily decrease inflammation, which is more characteristic of corticosteroids. Option C is incorrect as albuterol does not directly affect the action of cilia but rather acts on bronchial smooth muscle. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacologic actions of common medications like albuterol sulfate is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working with pediatric patients who may present with respiratory conditions. Knowing how albuterol works helps in appropriate prescribing, patient education on medication use, and monitoring for therapeutic effects and potential side effects.