In patients with febrile seizures, one of the following risk factors has the highest risk for subsequent epilepsy

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Neurodevelopmental abnormalitipose the highest epilepsy risk (~30-50%) after febrile seizures, indicating underlying brain dysfunction. Recurrent seizur, short fever onset , family history , and complex seizurhave lower risks (~5-15%). Structural or functional brain issudrive C as the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: SUDEP risk factors include polytherapy , young age , long epilepsy duration , and frequent seizur, tied to seizure control and autonomic dysfunction. Female gender is not a consistent risk; malmay be slightly more affected. Genders lack of specificity make B the exception and correct answer.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Phenobarbital is the first-line drug for neonatal seizures, per AAP, due to its efficacy, safety, and long half-life stabilizing GABA receptors. Diazepam , midazolam , and lorazepam risk respiratory depression; phenytoin is second-line. Phenobarbitals evidence base makes C the correct answer.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Breath-holding spells, benign events, are managed with reassurance , iron therapy for anemia-related cases, and atropine rarely for pallid spells. Antiepileptic drugs are ineffective, as spells arent seizures. This mechanistic mismatch makes D the exception and correct answer.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: NF-2s hallmark is bilateral vestibular schwannomas , per NIH criteria, affecting ~90% of patients due to NF2 gene mutations. Intracranial lesions , cataracts , retinal hamartomas , and skin plaquare less frequent. Schwannomas prevalence makes A the correct answer.