ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
In order to determine the patient's ability to concentrate and focus, which would be the PRIORITY nursing action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Assessing the mental status of the patient is the PRIORITY nursing action to determine the patient's ability to concentrate and focus. This assessment includes evaluating the patient's level of alertness, orientation, memory, thought processes, and mood. By observing the patient's mental status, the nurse can gain valuable information about the patient's cognitive function, attention span, and ability to concentrate. This assessment will help guide further interventions and care planning for the patient. Asking for academic performance or conducting paper and pencil tests may be useful tools to assess concentration and focus, but they should come after a comprehensive evaluation of the patient's mental status. Referring the patient to a psychiatrist may be necessary based on the assessment findings, but it should not be the first step in determining the patient's ability to concentrate and focus.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse anticipates that the signs and symptoms of BPH do NOT include_________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the signs and symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) is not pain on urination. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland which can cause urinary symptoms such as frequency of urination, dribbling of urine, hesitancy in starting urination, weak urine flow, feeling of incomplete bladder emptying, and increased urination at night (nocturia). Pain on urination is not typically associated with BPH, and it may suggest other urinary tract issues such as a urinary tract infection or a different medical condition.
Question 3 of 9
During the normal postpartum course, when would the nurse expect to note the fundal assessment that will be in line with the umbilicus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, the uterus undergoes involution, which is the process of returning to its pre-pregnant size and location. Initially, the fundus is firm and located at or just below the level of the umbilicus immediately after delivery. Over the next 24 hours, the fundus should gradually decrease in height as involution progresses. By the day after delivery, the nurse would expect the fundal assessment to be in line with the umbilicus or slightly below it, indicating normal involution of the uterus. If the fundus remains high or deviates from this expected progression, further assessment and intervention may be needed to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 4 of 9
According to RA 9482 or the anti- Rabies Act of 2007, which of the following statement s regarding rabies post exposure prophylaxis is APPLICABLE?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: According to RA 9482 or the Anti-Rabies Act of 2007, one of the key components of rabies prevention is to have dogs regularly vaccinated against rabies. This is a crucial step in reducing the risk of rabies transmission from dogs to humans. By ensuring that dogs are vaccinated, the likelihood of rabies exposure is significantly decreased. Additionally, proper vaccination also helps protect the health and well-being of the dogs themselves. Therefore, ensuring regular vaccination of dogs is an applicable and important statement regarding rabies post-exposure prophylaxis as mandated by the law.
Question 5 of 9
In CO-PAR, which is the MOST important role of the public health nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of CO-PAR (Community Organizing Participatory Action Research), the most important role of the public health nurse is being an expert. Public health nurses are expected to have specialized knowledge and skills in the field of public health, allowing them to provide evidence-based guidance and interventions to support community health initiatives. As an expert, the public health nurse can assess community needs, develop appropriate interventions, educate community members on health promotion and disease prevention, and evaluate the effectiveness of implemented programs. By utilizing their expertise, public health nurses can effectively contribute to improving the health outcomes and well-being of the community they serve.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a severe fungal infection demonstrates impaired neutrophil function. Which of the following cellular processes is most likely to be affected in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in immune defense against pathogens, particularly in phagocytosis - the process by which they engulf and destroy invading microorganisms. In a severe fungal infection, impaired neutrophil function would most likely affect their ability to effectively perform phagocytosis, leading to a compromised immune response against the fungal pathogen. This would result in increased susceptibility to the infection and potentially severe outcomes for the patient. Antibody production, cytokine secretion, and mast cell degranulation are important components of the immune response, but neutrophils are primarily responsible for phagocytosis in the innate immune system.
Question 7 of 9
When the nurse researcher collects data at more than one point over an extended period, which design is applied?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a longitudinal study design, the nurse researcher collects data at multiple points over an extended period of time. This design allows for the examination of changes or trends over time within the same group of participants. It helps in understanding the long-term effects and relationships between variables by tracking the same individuals over a prolonged duration. This design is particularly useful in studying developmental patterns, chronic diseases, or long-term treatment outcomes.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and signs of hypotension. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST- segment elevation in the inferior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and ST-segment elevation on an ECG in the inferior leads are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI occurs when there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle, leading to tissue damage. This causes symptoms such as chest pain due to ischemia, dyspnea due to heart failure, and hypotension due to poor cardiac output. The ST-segment elevation seen on the ECG is indicative of significant myocardial injury. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in acute MI to prevent further complications and to minimize damage to the heart muscle. It is important to differentiate an acute MI from stable or unstable angina or other cardiovascular disorders, as the management and prognosis vary significantly.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a history of chronic liver disease presents with easy bruising and prolonged bleeding from minor cuts. Laboratory tests reveal prolonged PT and aPTT, and mixing studies show correction of coagulation times with normal plasma. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is essential for the production of several clotting factors in the liver, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. In a patient with chronic liver disease, impaired liver function can lead to decreased synthesis of these clotting factors. As a result, there is an underlying deficiency of these clotting factors, leading to prolonged PT (prothrombin time) and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). The mixing studies showing correction with normal plasma further support the diagnosis of a factor deficiency rather than an inhibitor, which helps in ruling out conditions like DIC or hemophilia.