ATI RN
McGraw Hill Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In order to accurately identify etiology of peptic ulcer disease, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis was performed on gastric biopsy specimen taken from 47-year-old patient. Eventually, the test result was positive for H. pylori. Which of the following was most likely detected in PCR analysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bacterial DNA. PCR analysis detects specific DNA sequences, so a positive result for H. pylori indicates the presence of the bacterial DNA in the gastric biopsy specimen. This method identifies the genetic material of the bacterium, not the bacterium itself (choice C) or its toxins (choice B). Additionally, PCR does not directly detect bacterial enzymes (choice D) but rather focuses on genetic material for accurate identification. Therefore, in this case, the detection of H. pylori in the PCR analysis points to the presence of bacterial DNA, confirming the etiology of peptic ulcer disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured, revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This is because Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus that is oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococcus, but it is not fermentative. Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Haemophilus influenzae is Gram-negative but is not a diplococcus, and it is not fermentative. Therefore, based on the characteristics provided in the question, Neisseria meningitidis is the most likely causative agent.
Question 3 of 9
A laboratory received a sample of water used in drug production for sanitary and viral analysis. What group of viruses will indicate fecal contamination of water and thus the need for its additional purification?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Picornaviridae. Picornaviruses, such as enteroviruses, are commonly found in the feces of infected individuals. Therefore, their presence in water indicates fecal contamination and the need for additional purification. B: Herpesviridae are not typically associated with fecal contamination. C: Flaviviridae are mainly transmitted through arthropods like mosquitoes, not fecal contamination. D: Retroviridae, including HIV, are not typically excreted in high levels in feces and are not indicators of fecal contamination.
Question 4 of 9
Infections of Legionella pneumophila are treated with:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Macrolides or fluoroquinolones. Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that causes Legionnaires' disease, a severe form of pneumonia. Macrolides (like azithromycin) and fluoroquinolones (like levofloxacin) are the recommended first-line treatments due to their ability to penetrate into lung tissues where Legionella infects. Penicillins and cephalosporins (choice A) are not effective against Legionella as it is intracellular and resistant to these antibiotics. Ethambutol and isoniazid (choice B) are used to treat tuberculosis, not Legionella infections. Second and third generation cephalosporins (choice D) are also not effective against Legionella. Therefore, the best choice for treating Legionella pneumophila infections is macrolides or fluoroquinolones.
Question 5 of 9
The term “infectious process†means “all biological processes carried out after…â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the term "infectious process" refers to all biological processes that occur after the attachment and penetration of microbes into the host organism, regardless of whether there are clinical manifestations. This includes the colonization, multiplication, and spread of the microorganisms within the host. Explanation: A: Incorrect because it only mentions the attachment and penetration of microbes into the microorganism, missing the subsequent processes. C: Incorrect because it is too specific, stating that the penetration of microbes always manifests clinically, which is not always the case. D: Incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is B, as explained above.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following best describes the role of bacterial plasmids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carrying antibiotic resistance genes. Bacterial plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that can carry genes, including those for antibiotic resistance. This allows bacteria to survive exposure to antibiotics. Plasmids do not directly regulate bacterial growth (A), produce toxins (C), or facilitate endospore formation (D). Plasmids play a crucial role in the spread of antibiotic resistance among bacteria.
Question 7 of 9
A 16-year-old boy from the rural area entered the technical school. During a regular Mantoux test, it turned out that this boy had a negative reaction. What tactics should the doctor choose as the most rational in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BCG vaccination. BCG vaccination is recommended for individuals with a negative Mantoux test result, especially in countries where tuberculosis is prevalent. This vaccination can help provide protection against tuberculosis. Choice A is incorrect because repeating the Mantoux test in a month is unnecessary since the boy already had a negative reaction. Choice B is incorrect as serodiagnosis of tuberculosis is not the first-line approach for diagnosis, especially in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because urgent isolation is not necessary based solely on the Mantoux test result. Isolation is typically reserved for individuals with active tuberculosis.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acid-fast cell wall. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by its unique cell wall composition, containing high levels of mycolic acids which make it acid-fast. This property allows it to resist decolorization during acid-fast staining procedures. This distinguishes it from other bacteria. A: Producing spores is not a key feature of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Spore formation is more commonly associated with bacterial species such as Bacillus and Clostridium. B: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is not Gram-negative. It is classified as acid-fast Gram-positive. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not produce toxins as a key feature. Its pathogenicity is more closely related to its ability to evade host immune responses and persist in host tissues.
Question 9 of 9
Giardiasis is a waterborne gastrointestinal disease caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Giardiasis is caused by Giardia intestinalis, which is a well-known protozoan parasite. Step 2: Protozoans are single-celled eukaryotic organisms commonly found in water sources. Step 3: Giardia intestinalis infects the intestine, causing symptoms like diarrhea and abdominal cramps. Step 4: Bacteria (Choice B) are prokaryotic organisms, different from protozoans. Step 5: Fungi (Choice C) are also eukaryotic but are not responsible for causing Giardiasis. Step 6: Viruses (Choice D) are not cellular and cannot independently cause Giardiasis. In summary, the correct answer is A (protozoan) because Giardia intestinalis is a protozoan parasite specifically known to cause Giardiasis, while the other choices (Bacterium, Fungus, Virus) do not match the characteristics of the