ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
In nursing, Nurse Trining explained that the MAIN goal of conducting research is to______.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: establish a credit body of evidence to support and improve the delivery of care. Conducting research in nursing aims to generate a robust evidence base to inform and enhance the quality of care provided to patients. This evidence helps in identifying best practices, improving patient outcomes, and advancing the nursing profession as a whole. Choice A is incorrect because the main goal of research is not to solely justify the role of nurses, but rather to improve care delivery. Choice C is incorrect as the goal is not to justify an oversupply of nurses, but to address healthcare needs effectively. Choice D is incorrect because the focus of nursing research is on nursing-related issues, not non-nursing problems.
Question 2 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 3 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with muscle weakness and fatigue. Upon further examination, it is revealed that the patient has decreased acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Myasthenia gravis. In myasthenia gravis, there is a decrease in acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to muscle weakness and fatigue. This occurs due to autoimmune destruction of these receptors. ALS (B) affects motor neurons, not acetylcholine receptors. Guillain-Barre syndrome (C) is an autoimmune disorder affecting peripheral nerves, not neuromuscular junctions. Muscular dystrophy (D) is a genetic disorder causing muscle degeneration, not affecting acetylcholine receptors.
Question 5 of 9
A postpartum client presents with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling following a vaginal delivery. On assessment, the nurse notes ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The client presenting with persistent, severe perineal pain and swelling, along with ecchymosis and tenderness of the perineum, could be indicative of complications such as a perineal hematoma. A perineal hematoma is a collection of blood in the perineal tissues and can be a serious postpartum complication requiring prompt medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to alert the healthcare provider so that appropriate assessment, management, and treatment can be initiated promptly. Applying ice packs or encouraging the client to sit on a donut cushion may not be sufficient in this situation, and administering additional analgesic medication should be done only after the healthcare provider has assessed and determined the cause of the symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
During the active phase of labor, a woman's cervical dilation is progressing slowly despite regular contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to abnormal labor progression?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One potential maternal condition that may contribute to abnormal labor progression with slow cervical dilation despite regular contractions is pelvic outlet obstruction. This can occur if the maternal pelvis is too small, misshapen, or has an obstruction such as a fibroid tumor. The inadequate space in the pelvis can prevent the fetus from descending properly and can result in a prolonged or difficult labor. If suspected, interventions such as a cesarean delivery may be necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. It is essential for the nurse to assess for signs of pelvic outlet obstruction and work with the healthcare team to address any issues promptly to ensure a safe delivery.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status. Imaging reveals a noncontrast-enhancing hemorrhagic lesion within the subarachnoid space. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subarachnoid hemorrhage. This condition presents with sudden-onset severe headache, vomiting, and altered mental status due to bleeding in the subarachnoid space. This type of hemorrhage is typically noncontrast-enhancing on imaging. A: Ischemic stroke does not typically present with sudden-onset severe headache and vomiting. B: Subdural hematoma usually presents with a slower onset of symptoms and often develops after head trauma. C: Intracerebral hemorrhage presents with focal neurological deficits rather than altered mental status and vomiting. In summary, based on the sudden onset of symptoms, imaging findings, and clinical presentation, subarachnoid hemorrhage is the most likely diagnosis in this case.
Question 9 of 9
This law allows every Filipino to avail of affordable medicines
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The Universal Health Care law aims to provide all Filipinos access to quality and affordable healthcare services, including medicines. Step 2: This law covers a broader scope compared to the other choices. Step 3: The Local Government Code focuses on local governance, not specifically on healthcare. Step 4: Primary Health Care is a concept rather than a specific law targeting affordable medicines. Step 5: The Generic Drug Act promotes the use of generic drugs but does not guarantee affordability for all Filipinos.