In metabolic disorders, which of the following is most likely associated with cerebral edema if improperly treated?

Questions 230

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pediatric Clinical Nurse Specialist Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

In metabolic disorders, which of the following is most likely associated with cerebral edema if improperly treated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In metabolic disorders, such as diabetic ketoacidosis or hyponatremia, cerebral edema can occur due to osmotic shifts in the brain. In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Hypernatremia. Hypernatremia refers to elevated sodium levels in the blood, leading to cellular dehydration and brain shrinkage. If improperly treated, hypernatremia can cause rapid shifts in osmolarity, drawing water out of brain cells into the extracellular space, resulting in cerebral edema. Options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context. Hyperkalemia (option A) is associated with cardiac arrhythmias, not cerebral edema. Hypokalemia (option C) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac issues. Hyponatremia (option D) typically leads to cerebral edema, not cerebral dehydration. Educationally, understanding the relationship between electrolyte imbalances and cerebral complications is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. Recognizing the signs, symptoms, and appropriate treatments for metabolic disorders can help prevent severe neurological consequences like cerebral edema in pediatric patients.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following causes metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Metabolic acidosis refers to a condition characterized by a decrease in blood pH due to an excess of acids in the body. When evaluating the causes of metabolic acidosis, it is crucial to consider the anion gap, a calculated value that helps determine the underlying cause. In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Diarrhea. Diarrhea leads to metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap because of the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the gastrointestinal tract. The loss of bicarbonate results in an excess of hydrogen ions, leading to acidosis. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Diabetic ketoacidosis: This condition typically presents with an elevated anion gap due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood. C) Salicylate poisoning: Salicylate toxicity causes an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis due to the accumulation of salicylic acid. D) Renal failure: Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis, but it usually results in an increased anion gap due to the retention of acids like sulfate and phosphate. In an educational context, understanding the different causes of metabolic acidosis and how to interpret the anion gap is essential for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. It helps in identifying the underlying etiology, guiding appropriate treatment, and providing quality care to pediatric patients with acid-base disorders. By grasping these concepts, nurses can intervene promptly and effectively in managing acid-base imbalances in pediatric patients.

Question 3 of 5

The following drugs are used in resuscitation Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In a pediatric resuscitation scenario, the correct answer is D) Digitalis. Digitalis is not typically used in resuscitation efforts for pediatric patients. Atropine (A) is commonly used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. Bicarbonate (B) may be used in cases of metabolic acidosis. Epinephrine (C) is a vital drug in pediatric resuscitation as it helps improve heart function and blood pressure during cardiac arrest. Educationally, understanding the appropriate medications for pediatric resuscitation is crucial for clinical nurse specialists working in pediatric settings. It is important to know the indications, dosages, and potential side effects of each medication to provide effective care during critical situations. Continuous education and training on pediatric resuscitation guidelines and protocols are essential for healthcare providers to deliver high-quality and evidence-based care to pediatric patients in need of resuscitation.

Question 4 of 5

A 12-month-old receives the MMR vaccine and suddenly becomes flushed, tachycardic, tachypneic with weak peripheral pulses & deteriorating consciousness. What is the likely explanation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Immunological shock. When a 12-month-old receives the MMR vaccine and experiences symptoms like flushing, tachycardia, tachypnea, weak pulses, and deteriorating consciousness, it suggests an anaphylactic reaction. This is an acute and severe immunological response to an antigen, in this case, a component of the vaccine. The body's immune system overreacts, leading to widespread vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and smooth muscle contraction, resulting in the symptoms described. Option A) Cardiogenic shock is unlikely in this scenario as the symptoms are more indicative of a systemic reaction rather than a primary cardiac issue. Option B) Distributive shock, such as septic shock or anaphylactic shock, could be considered, but the specific context of a vaccine administration and the symptoms described point more towards an immunological reaction. Option C) Hypovolemic shock is not the likely explanation as there is no evidence of significant blood loss or dehydration in the scenario provided. Educational Context: Understanding the different types of shock and their presentations is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. Recognizing and managing anaphylactic reactions, especially in the context of vaccine administration, is a critical skill to ensure timely and appropriate intervention to prevent severe outcomes in pediatric patients.

Question 5 of 5

A head-injured 4-year-old patient opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain. His Glasgow Coma Score is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) 10. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess the level of consciousness in patients with head injuries. It consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. In this case, the patient opens eyes to a painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain. These findings correspond to a GCS score of 10, where eye opening response to pain scores 2, verbal response scores 4 for being confused, and motor response scores 4 for withdrawing from pain. Option A) 8 is incorrect because a GCS score of 8 typically indicates a more severe level of impairment, such as a patient who would not open their eyes spontaneously. Option C) 11 is incorrect because the patient's responses do not align with a GCS score of 11, which would require a more appropriate response to verbal stimuli. Option D) 13 is incorrect as well, as the patient's responses do not indicate a GCS score of 13, which would involve more appropriate responses to stimuli across all three components. Educationally, understanding the GCS is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists as it helps in assessing the severity of head injuries, guiding treatment decisions, and monitoring patients' progress. It is essential to interpret the GCS accurately to provide appropriate care and interventions for pediatric patients with head trauma.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions