ATI RN
Varneys Midwifery Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
In marginal cephalopelvic disproportion,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Marginal cephalopelvic disproportion can often be managed in labor without the need for a cesarean.
Question 2 of 5
Melanie is a 31-year-old patient who is being evaluated following a routine urinalysis that revealed microscopic hematuria. She was between menses and has no other identifiable explanation for hematuria. She has no significant medical history and otherwise is without complaint. The AGACNP knows that workup for Melanie should include
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Upper urinary imaging is the appropriate next step in the workup for Melanie based on the presentation of microscopic hematuria with no other identifiable explanation. Upper urinary imaging, such as an ultrasound or CT scan, can help evaluate the upper urinary tract, including the kidneys and ureters, to investigate potential causes of hematuria. This step is commonly recommended before proceeding to invasive procedures like cystoscopy or consultation with a urologist. It allows for a non-invasive assessment of the upper urinary system to identify any potential abnormalities that may be causing the hematuria in the patient.
Question 3 of 5
The diagnostic factor of polyhydramnious, based on percussion, is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fluid thrill is a key diagnostic sign of polyhydramnious.
Question 4 of 5
The presenting diameter in face presentation is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In face presentation, the presenting diameter is submento-vertical.
Question 5 of 5
The term persistent occipito-posterior position indicates that the occiput
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Persistent occipito-posterior position means the occiput fails to rotate forward.