In hyperkalemia, which of the following treatments antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart?

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Question 1 of 5

In hyperkalemia, which of the following treatments antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the management of hyperkalemia is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. In hyperkalemia, the elevated levels of potassium can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. The correct answer, IV calcium gluconate (Option C), antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane potential. Calcium helps counteract the depolarizing effect of potassium, thereby reducing the risk of life-threatening cardiac complications. Option A, cation exchange resin, is used to remove potassium from the body by exchanging it with other cations in the gastrointestinal tract. While this treatment can lower potassium levels, it does not directly counteract the effects of hyperkalemia on the heart like calcium gluconate does. Option B, inhaled Beta 2 agonist, is more commonly used in conditions like asthma to cause bronchodilation. It does not play a significant role in managing hyperkalemia and its cardiac effects. Option D, IV insulin/glucose mixture infusion, works by promoting the movement of potassium from the extracellular space into the cells. While this treatment can help lower potassium levels overall, it does not specifically target the direct cardiac effects of hyperkalemia like calcium gluconate does. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing IV calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and appropriate interventions to prevent cardiac complications in pediatric patients. By grasping the pharmacological actions of different treatments, nurses can make informed clinical decisions to optimize patient outcomes and safety.

Question 2 of 5

The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in infants is 100 per minute (Option C). This rate is recommended by the American Heart Association (AHA) for effective chest compressions in pediatric patients. Option A (150 per minute) is too fast for infants and may not allow for adequate chest recoil between compressions, decreasing the effectiveness of CPR. Option B (125 per minute) is also faster than the recommended rate, which can lead to suboptimal perfusion. Option D (75 per minute) is too slow and may not provide enough circulation to vital organs during CPR. Educationally, understanding the correct rate of chest compressions in infants is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in pediatric settings or emergency departments. Proper CPR technique can make a significant difference in outcomes for pediatric patients in cardiac arrest. It is essential to follow evidence-based guidelines like those provided by the AHA to ensure the best possible care for infants in need of resuscitation.

Question 3 of 5

Advanced life support includes the following Except:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding advanced life support is crucial for providing effective care in emergency situations. The correct answer, "D) Treatment of life-threatening arrhythmias," is not typically included in the initial steps of advanced life support for pediatric patients. While treating life-threatening arrhythmias is important, in the context of pediatric resuscitation, priorities lie in ensuring adequate oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation. Option A, "Vascular access," is essential in advanced life support to administer medications and fluids rapidly. Option B, "Fluid administration," is critical for maintaining intravascular volume and perfusion. Option C, "Breathing support," focuses on ensuring proper oxygenation and ventilation, which are fundamental in pediatric resuscitation. Educationally, understanding the sequence and priorities of advanced life support in pediatrics is vital for nurses and healthcare providers. By prioritizing interventions based on the specific needs of pediatric patients, healthcare professionals can improve outcomes in critical situations. Remembering the unique physiological differences and needs of children during resuscitation is key to delivering high-quality care in pediatric nursing practice.

Question 4 of 5

A 12-month-old receives the MMR vaccine and suddenly becomes flushed, tachycardic, tachypneic with weak peripheral pulsation & deteriorating consciousness. What is the likely explanation?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Immunological shock. In this scenario, the child's sudden onset of symptoms following the MMR vaccine suggests an anaphylactic reaction, which is a type of immunological shock. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to symptoms such as flushing, tachycardia, tachypnea, weak peripheral pulses, and altered consciousness. Option A) Cardiogenic shock is unlikely in this case because there is no history of underlying heart conditions or cardiac dysfunction. Option B) Distributive shock, such as septic shock, is also less likely as there are no signs of infection present in the scenario. Option C) Hypovolemic shock, caused by a significant loss of blood or fluids, does not fit the clinical picture as there is no mention of trauma or significant fluid loss. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working with pediatric populations, to be able to recognize and respond to allergic reactions promptly. Understanding the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis and differentiating it from other types of shock is vital for providing appropriate and timely interventions to prevent severe outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

All the following can cause metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap Except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding metabolic acidosis is crucial as it can indicate severe underlying conditions. The correct answer, option C, Renal tubular acidosis, is not associated with a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. This is because renal tubular acidosis primarily involves a defect in renal acidification and reabsorption, leading to a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis. Option A, Diabetic ketoacidosis, results from the accumulation of ketones in the blood due to insulin deficiency, leading to a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Option B, Salicylate poisoning, causes an increase in the production of organic acids, resulting in a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Option D, Renal failure, can lead to the accumulation of sulfate and phosphate ions, causing a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. Educationally, this question helps learners differentiate between different causes of metabolic acidosis in pediatric patients. Understanding the underlying pathophysiology of each condition aids in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management, especially in critical care settings. Remembering these distinctions is vital for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients with metabolic acidosis.

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