ATI RN
Pharmacology CNS Drugs Classification Questions
Question 1 of 5
In humans, sedation caused by morphine is characterized by
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In humans, sedation caused by morphine is characterized by "All of the above" (Option D) because morphine initially causes excitement due to its euphoric effects, followed by sedation as it depresses the central nervous system. This sedation includes motor incoordination and a rise in seizure threshold. Option A, "Initial excitement," is incorrect because while morphine can initially cause a feeling of euphoria or well-being, it is not sustained and is followed by sedation. Option B, "Little or no motor incoordination," is incorrect because morphine's sedative effects do cause motor incoordination, making tasks like driving or operating machinery dangerous. Option C, "Rise in seizure threshold," is incorrect because morphine actually lowers the seizure threshold, making it contraindicated in individuals with a history of seizures. In an educational context, understanding the effects of CNS drugs like morphine is crucial for healthcare professionals to safely administer and monitor patients receiving these medications. It is important to recognize the full spectrum of effects a drug can have to provide adequate care and prevent potential complications.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following glucocorticoids has significant mineralocorticoid activity also?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the properties of glucocorticoids is crucial for prescribing the right medication. The correct answer is A) Hydrocortisone. Hydrocortisone, also known as cortisol, is an endogenous glucocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex. It not only possesses anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects but also exhibits significant mineralocorticoid activity due to its structural similarity to aldosterone. Triamcinolone (B), Dexamethasone (C), and Betamethasone (D) are synthetic glucocorticoids that predominantly exert anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive actions with minimal mineralocorticoid effects. Triamcinolone has a longer duration of action, Dexamethasone is more potent, and Betamethasone has a longer half-life compared to Hydrocortisone. In an educational context, it is important to emphasize the distinction between glucocorticoids with significant mineralocorticoid activity like Hydrocortisone and those with mainly glucocorticoid effects. Understanding these differences is essential for selecting the appropriate medication based on the desired therapeutic outcomes and minimizing adverse effects related to mineralocorticoid excess. This knowledge is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when managing conditions like adrenal insufficiency and inflammatory disorders.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following opioid analgesics is similar to codeine in pharmacological profile but is less constipating?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Butorphanol. Butorphanol is a synthetic opioid analgesic that is similar to codeine in its pharmacological profile but is less constipating. This is due to its partial agonist activity at the mu opioid receptor, which provides pain relief with reduced side effects like constipation compared to full agonists like codeine. A) Methadone is a full mu opioid receptor agonist and is not known for being less constipating compared to codeine. It is commonly used in opioid addiction treatment due to its long duration of action. B) Buprenorphine is a partial mu opioid receptor agonist and has a high affinity for the receptor, making it effective in treating pain and opioid dependence. However, it is not specifically known for being less constipating compared to codeine. D) Dextropropoxyphene is a weak opioid analgesic and is not commonly used anymore due to safety concerns, including cardiac toxicity. It is not similar to codeine in pharmacological profile in terms of constipation. In an educational context, understanding the pharmacological profiles of different opioid analgesics is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in pain management. Knowing the unique characteristics of each drug, such as their side effect profiles, helps in selecting the most appropriate treatment for individual patients based on their needs and potential risks. This knowledge also contributes to safe prescribing practices and optimizing patient outcomes.
Question 4 of 5
Aspirin reduces fever by
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and CNS drugs, understanding the mechanism of action of aspirin in reducing fever is crucial. The correct answer, option D, "Both (b) and (c)" is the most accurate choice. Aspirin works by reducing fever through its action on the hypothalamus, which is the body's temperature-regulating center. By enhancing cutaneous blood flow (option B) and inducing sweating (option C), aspirin helps the body dissipate heat more effectively, leading to a reduction in body temperature during fever. Option A, "Decreasing heat production in the body," is incorrect because aspirin primarily acts on enhancing heat loss rather than directly reducing heat production. It does not inhibit the body's natural heat production mechanisms but rather supports the body in dissipating heat more efficiently. Educationally, this question is essential for students studying pharmacology as it tests their understanding of how specific drugs, such as aspirin, work on the body to achieve therapeutic effects. Understanding the mechanism of action of drugs like aspirin can help students make informed decisions in clinical settings when managing patients with fever or other conditions where temperature regulation is crucial.
Question 5 of 5
Which component of sulfasalazine is responsible for the therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of drugs is crucial for effective clinical practice. In the case of sulfasalazine, which is commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, the therapeutic effect is primarily attributed to its metabolite sulfapyridine. The correct answer, A) Sulfapyridine, is responsible for the anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory effects seen in rheumatoid arthritis. Sulfapyridine is formed when sulfasalazine is broken down by colonic bacteria in the gastrointestinal tract. This metabolite inhibits the production of inflammatory mediators, such as prostaglandins, thereby reducing inflammation and providing relief to patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B) 5-aminosalicylic acid is another metabolite of sulfasalazine, but it is primarily responsible for the treatment of inflammatory bowel diseases, such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease. It does not play a significant role in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. Option D) Intact sulfasalazine molecule itself does not contribute directly to the therapeutic effect in rheumatoid arthritis. Its metabolites, particularly sulfapyridine, are the active agents responsible for the desired pharmacological actions. Understanding the specific mechanisms of drug actions and their metabolites is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding drug selection and patient care. This knowledge helps in optimizing therapeutic outcomes and minimizing adverse effects for patients receiving pharmacological interventions.