In examining a 70-year-old male patient, the nurse notices that he has bilateral gynecomastia. Which of the following describes the nurse's best course of action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because gynecomastia in men is often caused by hormonal imbalances. By explaining this to the patient and recommending evaluation by a physician, the nurse ensures appropriate medical assessment and potential treatment. Choice A is incorrect because mammograms are not typically used to diagnose gynecomastia in men. Choice B is incorrect as gynecomastia should not be dismissed without further evaluation. Choice D is incorrect because gynecomastia is not always associated with prostate enlargement, and a thorough screening may not be necessary without more specific symptoms or risk factors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because S1 coincides with the carotid artery pulse due to the closure of the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid). This occurs at the beginning of systole. A is incorrect as S1 is actually softer than S2 at the base of the heart. B is incorrect because S1 marks the beginning of systole, not diastole. D is incorrect as S1 is caused by the closure of the AV valves, not the semilunar valves.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Psychological issues. Jim's recent separation and inability to function sexually suggest a psychological cause, such as depression or anxiety. Early morning erections indicate physical capability, ruling out choices A, C, and D. Decreased testosterone levels (A) would not selectively affect sexual function, abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation (C) would lead to consistent erectile dysfunction, and impaired neural innervation (D) would affect all aspects of sexual function, not just specific situations. Therefore, psychological issues are the most likely cause for Jim's problem.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. As individuals age, their peripheral blood vessels tend to become more rigid, leading to an increase in systolic blood pressure. This is a normal physiologic change associated with aging due to the loss of elasticity in the blood vessels. This change is commonly seen in older adults and is a result of the natural aging process. Choice A is incorrect because hormonal changes in older adults do not typically cause vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as progressive atrophy of intramuscular calf veins is not a normal physiologic change associated with aging. Choice D is also incorrect as narrowing of the inferior vena cava does not typically occur as a normal part of the aging process, leading to low blood flow and varicosities.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a weak, thready pulse is defined as being hard to palpate, may fade in and out, and can be easily obliterated by pressure. This indicates a pulse that is difficult to feel, lacks consistency, and may disappear with minimal pressure. Choice A is incorrect as a weak, thready pulse is not easily palpable and does not pound under the fingertips. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a pulse with greater than normal force that suddenly collapses, which is indicative of a bounding pulse, not a weak, thready pulse. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a pulse with varying force between beats, which is not characteristic of a weak, thready pulse.