In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by:

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Multidimensional Basis of Health Protective Behaviors Questions

Question 1 of 5

In evaluating the effect of nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because nitroglycerin works by dilating veins, decreasing venous return to the heart, and reducing preload. This reduces the workload of the heart and oxygen demand, relieving angina. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not increase contractility but rather decreases it. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not increase AV conduction or heart rate. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin does not decrease contractility or oxygen consumption.

Question 2 of 5

Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase his activity level. Regular physical activity helps improve circulation, lower blood pressure, and reduce cholesterol levels, all of which can help decrease the risk of atherosclerosis. Exercise also helps maintain a healthy weight and reduces stress, which are additional risk factors for atherosclerosis. Explanation for other choices: A: Avoid focusing on his weight - Weight management is important in reducing the risk of atherosclerosis, so focusing on weight is beneficial. C: Follow a regular diet - Following a healthy diet is important, but alone may not be sufficient to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis without physical activity. D: Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle - High stress levels can contribute to the development of atherosclerosis, so it is important to reduce stress through relaxation techniques and exercise.

Question 3 of 5

After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a tension pneumothorax has occurred. What cause of tension pneumothorax should the nurse check for?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kinked or obstructed chest tube. When a client with a pneumothorax develops hypotension, neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis, it indicates a tension pneumothorax. In this case, the chest tube may be kinked or obstructed, leading to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space. This increased pressure causes a shift in the mediastinum and impairs venous return, resulting in hypotension and other signs of tension pneumothorax. Checking for a kinked or obstructed chest tube is crucial to relieve the pressure and prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect: A: Infection of the lung does not typically lead to the rapid onset of symptoms seen in tension pneumothorax. C: Excessive water in the water-seal chamber would not cause the described signs of tension pneumothorax. D: Ex

Question 4 of 5

The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which statement about bone marrow transplantation is not correct?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: A: The patient is under general anesthesia during bone marrow transplantation to ensure no discomfort or movement during the procedure, which involves inserting a needle into the bone. B: Aspirated bone marrow is mixed with anticoagulants like heparin to prevent clotting and ensure the cells remain viable. C: The iliac crest is a common site for bone marrow aspiration due to its accessibility and abundance of marrow-producing cells. D: The recipient receives preparatory chemotherapy like cyclophosphamide to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of rejection during transplantation.

Question 5 of 5

Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. 1. TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, meaning abnormal cells are present but have not invaded nearby tissues. 2. N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes, suggesting no spread of cancer to the lymph nodes. 3. M0 indicates no evidence of distant metastasis, indicating the cancer has not spread to other parts of the body. Therefore, the classification TIS, N0, M0 signifies that the lesion is in the early stage, confined to its original location without lymph node involvement or distant spread. Incorrect choices: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - The TNM classification is clear, not "Can't assess tumor or regional lymph nodes." D: Incorrect - TIS does not indicate ascending degrees of distant metastasis, and N0 indicates no abnormal lymph nodes, not "

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