ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible,
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because when a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a standardized formula can be used to estimate GFR. The Cockcroft-Gault equation or the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are commonly used formulas to estimate GFR based on serum creatinine levels, age, gender, and race. These formulas provide a reasonable estimation of kidney function in the absence of a 24-hour urine collection. Choice A is incorrect because there are alternative methods available to estimate GFR. Choice B is incorrect because BUN alone is not sufficient to accurately determine renal function. Choice C is incorrect because an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio is not a direct measure of GFR and may be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as hydration status or liver function.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who is experiencing pain that is continuous and severe. How should the nurse schedule the administration of opioid pain medications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Give around-the-clock routine administration of analgesics. This is the best approach for managing continuous and severe pain in a terminally ill patient. By providing scheduled doses of opioid pain medications, the nurse ensures a consistent level of pain relief, preventing peaks and troughs in pain control. This approach also helps in preventing the patient from experiencing unnecessary suffering. Choice B (PRN doses) may lead to inadequate pain control as the patient may wait too long before requesting medication. Choice C (keeping the patient sedated) is not appropriate as the goal is pain management, not sedation. Choice D (balancing pain control and respiratory rate) is important, but the priority should be on effectively managing the pain first.
Question 3 of 5
The patient’s significant other is terrified by the prospect o f removing life-sustaining treatments from the patient and asks why anyone would do that. What explanation should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it explains that the decision to remove life-sustaining treatments is based on the fact that these treatments are not helping the patient and may actually be causing discomfort. This rationale aligns with the principle of beneficence, which emphasizes doing good and avoiding harm to the patient. It also respects the patient's autonomy by prioritizing their well-being and quality of life. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on financial reasons rather than the patient's best interest. Choice B is incorrect because it prioritizes hospital resources over individual patient care. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity and may come across as insensitive to the significant other's concerns.
Question 4 of 5
Which nursing strategies help the patient to feel safe in the critical care setting? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because allowing family members to remain at the bedside can provide emotional support and comfort to the patient, helping them feel safe in the critical care setting. Family presence can also facilitate communication and understanding between the healthcare team and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because consulting with the charge nurse before making patient care decisions may not directly contribute to the patient feeling safe. Choice C is incorrect because providing informal conversation about work-related topics may not address the patient's need for safety and security in the critical care setting. Choice D is incorrect because explaining how to communicate for assistance is important for patient care but may not directly contribute to the patient's sense of safety in the critical care setting.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 100-kg patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse assesses a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, hear t rate 110 beats/min, respirations 36/min, oxygen saturation of 89% on 3 L of oxygen via nasal cannula. Bilateral crackles are audible upon auscultation. Which hemodynamic value reqaubiirrbe.sco imm/temste diate action by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cardiac output (CO) of 4 L/min. In this scenario, the patient is presenting with signs of pulmonary congestion and hypoxemia, indicating possible cardiogenic pulmonary edema. As the cardiac output is a key indicator of how well the heart is functioning and delivering blood to the body, a low cardiac output can lead to inadequate tissue perfusion and worsen the patient's condition. Therefore, immediate action is required to address the low cardiac output to improve tissue perfusion and oxygenation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the primary concern of inadequate cardiac output in this patient. Cardiac index, pulmonary vascular resistance, and systemic vascular resistance are important parameters to monitor, but in this case, the priority is to address the low cardiac output to improve the patient's condition.
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