ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4 Questions
Question 1 of 9
In determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient, which step involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Evaluation.' Evaluation in nursing involves assessing whether the care provided is appropriate and effective in relation to the patient's current physiological and psychological status. This step helps determine the outcomes of the care provided and if any changes are needed. Choice B, 'Planning,' focuses on developing a plan of care based on the assessment findings. Choice C, 'Implementation,' involves carrying out the plan of care. Choice D, 'Assessment,' is the initial step in the nursing process that involves gathering data about the patient's health status.
Question 2 of 9
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours'?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Accountability.' This choice is the most appropriate for the task 'Know what your soldiers are doing during duty hours' as it directly relates to being responsible for and knowing the actions and whereabouts of individuals under supervision. 'Personal/professional development' (choice B) focuses on growth and advancement, 'Individual training' (choice C) pertains to specific skill development, and 'Military appearance/physical condition' (choice D) deals with the physical presentation and health of soldiers, none of which directly address the task of knowing soldiers' activities during duty hours.
Question 3 of 9
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task 'Conduct physical training'?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Military appearance/physical condition.' The task 'Conduct physical training' aligns with the category of 'Military appearance/physical condition,' as it involves overseeing physical training activities related to maintaining a certain physical standard. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because 'Accountability' pertains to being answerable for one's actions, 'Personal/professional development' focuses on individual growth and learning, and 'Individual training' is specific to training on a personal level, none of which directly relate to the task of conducting physical training in the context of military appearance and physical condition.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a community class to people with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which explanation would explain the development of Type 2 diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In Type 2 diabetes, the primary issue is insulin resistance, where cells do not respond effectively to insulin. Choice A is incorrect because in Type 1 diabetes, the islet cells in the pancreas stop producing insulin. Choice B is not directly related to the development of Type 2 diabetes but rather to its management. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to a dysfunction in vasopressin production, which is not related to Type 2 diabetes.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first intervention when a client goes into ventricular tachycardia is to assess for a pulse. This is crucial as the presence or absence of a pulse guides subsequent actions. Initiating chest compressions or calling a code should only be done after confirming the absence of a pulse. Continuing to monitor the client without checking for a pulse delays potentially life-saving interventions.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties at the various levels of health care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 68WM6. The 68WM6 (Practical Nurse) is the primary enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties. Choice A (68A30) does not correspond to a primary enlisted personnel role in nursing. Choice C (Physician assistant) is not an enlisted personnel role but rather a separate healthcare profession. Choice D (6.80E+21) is a numerical value and does not relate to enlisted personnel performing nursing care duties.
Question 8 of 9
Which endocrine disorder would the nurse assess for in the client who has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus can develop after a head injury due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland, leading to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Pheochromocytoma (Choice A) is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excessive release of catecholamines, leading to hypertension. Hashimoto's disease (Choice C) is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid gland. Gynecomastia (Choice D) refers to the enlargement of breast tissue in males and is not directly related to a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure.
Question 9 of 9
What is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering phosphate binders is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia. Phosphate binders work by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is not a primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia and can actually exacerbate the condition by potentially raising calcium levels. Increasing phosphorus intake (Choice B) is contraindicated in hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (Choice C) may help manage hypercalcemia but is not the primary intervention for hyperphosphatemia.