ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
In case of pulseless ventricular tachycardia:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the case of pulseless ventricular tachycardia, the correct action is to administer a synchronized direct current (DC) shock at 4J/kg. This is the most appropriate intervention to attempt to restore a normal sinus rhythm in a pediatric patient experiencing this life-threatening arrhythmia. DC shocks are effective in terminating ventricular tachycardia by depolarizing the myocardium and allowing the normal pacemaker activity to resume. Option A, DC 2J/kg, is incorrect because the recommended energy for a pediatric patient in pulseless ventricular tachycardia is 4J/kg, not 2J/kg. Administering a lower energy level may not be effective in terminating the arrhythmia. Option B, endotracheal intubation, is not the initial intervention for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. While airway management is important in resuscitation, the priority in this situation is to deliver a DC shock to attempt to restore a perfusing rhythm. Option D, giving epinephrine, is also not the initial intervention for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Although epinephrine is part of the advanced life support algorithm, in this scenario, the immediate action should be to deliver a DC shock. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in pediatric settings, to be proficient in recognizing and managing life-threatening arrhythmias in children. Understanding the correct interventions for pulseless ventricular tachycardia and being able to quickly and effectively implement them can significantly impact patient outcomes. Regular training and simulation exercises can help healthcare providers maintain the necessary skills to respond to such critical situations.
Question 2 of 5
One of the unfavorable prognostic factors in acute lymphoblastic leukemia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) T-ALL by immunophenotyping. In pediatric acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), T-cell ALL (T-ALL) is considered an unfavorable prognostic factor due to its aggressive nature and poorer response to treatment compared to B-cell ALL. T-ALL is associated with a higher risk of relapse and lower overall survival rates. Option A) Age <10 years old is actually a favorable prognostic factor in pediatric ALL, as younger age is associated with better outcomes and response to therapy. Option C) Initial WBCs <50,000/mm³ is also a favorable prognostic factor, as lower white blood cell counts at diagnosis are associated with better outcomes. Option D) CSF free from blast cells is important for staging and treatment planning, but it is not a prognostic factor for ALL. In an educational context, understanding prognostic factors in pediatric ALL is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric oncology patients. Recognizing these factors helps in anticipating patient outcomes, guiding treatment decisions, and providing appropriate support to patients and families throughout the challenging treatment process. Nurses play a significant role in monitoring for signs of relapse, managing treatment side effects, and promoting adherence to therapy in pediatric ALL patients.
Question 3 of 5
A 5-year-old girl with altered mental status and CSF findings of high WBCs (80% neutrophils), low sugar, and high protein likely has:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Bacterial Meningitis. In a 5-year-old girl with altered mental status and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings of high white blood cells (WBCs) with predominantly neutrophils, low sugar, and high protein, the most likely diagnosis is bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a high neutrophil count in the CSF, low glucose levels, and high protein levels. This is due to the acute inflammatory response caused by bacterial pathogens. The altered mental status is also a common symptom seen in bacterial meningitis due to the infection affecting the brain. Option A) Normal is incorrect as the clinical presentation and CSF findings are indicative of an abnormal, inflammatory process. Option C) Viral encephalitis typically presents with lymphocytic predominance in the CSF, as well as other specific clinical findings such as seizures and focal neurological deficits, which are not mentioned in the question stem. Option D) TB Meningitis would show a lymphocytic predominance in the CSF, and TB Meningitis is less common in this age group compared to bacterial meningitis. In an educational context, understanding the typical CSF findings and clinical presentations of different types of meningitis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and appropriate care. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of bacterial meningitis in children is vital as it is a medical emergency requiring prompt treatment to prevent serious complications.
Question 4 of 5
Hemophilia A is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In hemophilia A, which is a genetic disorder caused by deficiency of clotting factor VIII, the correct answer is C) Prolonged APTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). This is because hemophilia A specifically affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, leading to a prolonged APTT due to the deficiency of factor VIII. Option A) Prolonged bleeding time is incorrect because hemophilia A primarily affects clotting factors, not platelet function, which is assessed by bleeding time. Option B) Prolonged prothrombin time is incorrect because prothrombin time primarily evaluates the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which is not primarily affected in hemophilia A. Option D) Prolonged thrombin time is incorrect because thrombin time evaluates the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which is not directly impacted by factor VIII deficiency in hemophilia A. Educationally, understanding the specific clotting factors involved in hemophilia A and how they affect different parts of the coagulation cascade is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management of patients with this condition. Nurses caring for pediatric patients with hemophilia A need to recognize the importance of monitoring APTT levels and administering factor replacement therapy to prevent and treat bleeding episodes effectively.
Question 5 of 5
The exact time of appearance of skin elevated temperature in roseola infantum infection is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer for the question regarding the appearance of skin elevated temperature in roseola infantum infection being once the fever drops (Option D) is based on the characteristic progression of this viral illness. Roseola infantum, also known as sixth disease, typically presents with high fever for several days followed by the sudden resolution of fever and the appearance of a raised, maculopapular rash. Option A (1st day of fever) is incorrect because roseola infantum is characterized by a few days of high fever before the rash appears. Option B (3rd day of fever) is incorrect as the rash typically appears after the fever has subsided. Option C (4th day of fever) is also incorrect as it does not align with the typical progression of this viral infection. In an educational context, understanding the timeline of symptoms in childhood illnesses like roseola infantum is crucial for pediatric nurses. This knowledge helps in accurate assessment, diagnosis, and management of pediatric patients. By recognizing the sequence of events in roseola infantum, healthcare providers can provide appropriate anticipatory guidance to parents and ensure the well-being of the child during the course of the illness.