ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Banks Questions
Question 1 of 9
In case of poisoning, the nurse is aware that the main goals in poisoning are to ________. I. inactivate the poison II. administer the specific antidote III. induce the patient to vomit IV. support vital organ functions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of poisoning, the main goals are to inactivate the poison to prevent further harm, administer the specific antidote if available to counteract the effects of the poison, and support vital organ functions to help the patient recover. Inducing the patient to vomit (III) is not always recommended as it can potentially cause more harm, especially if the ingested substance is corrosive. Therefore, the most appropriate goals in poisoning are to inactivate the poison, administer the specific antidote, and support vital organ functions.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following conditions is characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption and formation, resulting in bone thinning and increased risk of fractures?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by an imbalance between bone resorption (breakdown of bone tissue) and bone formation, leading to bone thinning and increased risk of fractures. In osteoporosis, bones become weak and porous, making them more prone to fractures even with minor trauma. This condition is common in postmenopausal women and older individuals. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, lack of physical activity, low calcium and vitamin D intake, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications. Treatment typically involves lifestyle modifications, including adequate calcium and vitamin D intake, weight-bearing exercises, and sometimes medication to help slow down bone loss and reduce fracture risk. Early detection and management of osteoporosis are crucial to prevent fractures and maintain bone health.
Question 3 of 9
The physician orders cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) for the client. The nurse instructs the client that the most effective administration schedule is ________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cromolyn sodium (nasal crom) is a mast cell stabilizer that is commonly used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, such as sneezing, itching, and congestion. It works best when used before exposure to allergens. The most effective administration schedule for nasal crom is to start using it just after allergy symptoms begin, with a dose of twice-a-day. This helps to prevent the release of histamine and other inflammatory substances from mast cells, thereby reducing allergic symptoms. Using nasal crom in this way can help provide relief and improve the overall management of allergic rhinitis.
Question 4 of 9
In handling all information about the famiilies in the community, which of the following principles should the nurse consider ethical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When handling information about families in the community, the nurse should consider the principle of confidentiality as ethical. Confidentiality refers to the obligation of healthcare providers to safeguard the privacy of patient information. By maintaining confidentiality, the nurse upholds trust and respect in the nurse-family relationship. This principle ensures that sensitive information shared by families is kept secure and not disclosed without permission, thus respecting their autonomy and promoting open communication in healthcare settings.
Question 5 of 9
Nurse Nanie is aware that history taking and physical exam are critical to the diagnostic process and often provide more information than can be gained broad testing strategies. History taking includes the by following, EXCEPT _______
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Religious Affiliation is not typically included in the history taking process for diagnosing medical conditions. While a patient's religious beliefs may sometimes be relevant in certain situations, it is not a standard component of medical history. History taking usually includes aspects such as the history of present illness, social and family history, and past medical history as these can provide important information related to the patient's health condition.
Question 6 of 9
During theh history taking, which of the following is the MOST common symptom of Scabies that the family would report to Nurse Emma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most common symptom of scabies that the family would report to Nurse Emma is itchiness. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which burrows into the skin and lays eggs, leading to intense itching, especially at night. The itching is a result of the body's allergic reaction to the mites and their waste products. While rashes, scaling, and swelling can also occur with scabies, the hallmark and most bothersome symptom experienced by individuals with scabies is the intense itchiness, making it the most common symptom reported by affected individuals or their families during the history-taking process.
Question 7 of 9
Despite the short staffing, Nurse Cirila also has the responsibility to maintain safe environment for her pediatric patients. The following are the indicators that Nurse Cirila has achieved this goal, EXCEPT __________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The indicators listed indicate measures that Nurse Cirila can take to maintain a safe environment for her pediatric patients. However, assessing the competencies of staff before delegating a task is more related to ensuring effective delegation and appropriate task assignment rather than directly ensuring a safe environment for patients. While it is important to delegate tasks to qualified staff, this specific action does not directly contribute to maintaining a safe environment in the same manner as the other indicators listed (proper waste disposal, infection control, emergency protocols).
Question 8 of 9
During the normal postpartum course, when would the nurse expect to note the fundal assessment that will be in line with the umbilicus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After childbirth, the uterus undergoes involution, which is the process of returning to its pre-pregnant size and location. Initially, the fundus is firm and located at or just below the level of the umbilicus immediately after delivery. Over the next 24 hours, the fundus should gradually decrease in height as involution progresses. By the day after delivery, the nurse would expect the fundal assessment to be in line with the umbilicus or slightly below it, indicating normal involution of the uterus. If the fundus remains high or deviates from this expected progression, further assessment and intervention may be needed to prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and signs of hypotension. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows ST- segment elevation in the inferior leads. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chest pain, dyspnea, hypotension, and ST-segment elevation on an ECG in the inferior leads are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction (MI). An acute MI occurs when there is a sudden blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle, leading to tissue damage. This causes symptoms such as chest pain due to ischemia, dyspnea due to heart failure, and hypotension due to poor cardiac output. The ST-segment elevation seen on the ECG is indicative of significant myocardial injury. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in acute MI to prevent further complications and to minimize damage to the heart muscle. It is important to differentiate an acute MI from stable or unstable angina or other cardiovascular disorders, as the management and prognosis vary significantly.