ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: multiplied by 0.85. This is because women typically have lower muscle mass compared to men, resulting in lower creatinine production. Therefore, to adjust for this difference, the creatinine clearance for women is multiplied by 0.85. This correction factor helps to more accurately estimate the GFR in women. Choices A and B are incorrect because the creatinine clearance for women is not the same as or greater than that for men due to the physiological differences in muscle mass. Choice D is also incorrect as multiplying by 1.15 would overestimate the GFR in women.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has been declared brain dead is considered a potential organ donor. In order to proceed with donation, the nurse must understand that applicable concept?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because after brain death is confirmed, maintaining perfusion and oxygenation of organs is crucial to ensure their viability for donation. This process allows organs to be retrieved in optimal condition during the operation. Choice A is incorrect because a signed donor card is not a legal mandate for organ retrieval. Choice C is incorrect as the healthcare proxy's consent is typically required for organ donation. Choice D is incorrect because life support is not immediately withdrawn upon brain death confirmation; instead, organ preservation measures are initiated.
Question 3 of 9
Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a right radial arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take immediate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a cooler right hand may indicate compromised circulation, potentially due to arterial occlusion or clot formation. This could lead to inadequate perfusion and tissue damage. Immediate action is needed to assess and address the cause. Choice B is incorrect because a MAP of 77 mm Hg is within the normal range for most patients and does not require immediate action. Choice C is incorrect as delivering 3 mL of flush solution per hour is an appropriate rate and does not indicate a need for immediate action. Choice D is incorrect as the flush bag and tubing being changed 3 days ago does not necessarily indicate an immediate issue with the arterial line function.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is receiving neuromuscular blockade. Which nursing assessment indicates a target level of paralysis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Train-of-four yields two twitches. This assessment indicates a target level of paralysis because a train-of-four ratio of 2 twitches out of 4 suggests a 50% neuromuscular blockade, which is often the goal for patients receiving paralysis for procedures or ventilation. A: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 3 assesses consciousness, not neuromuscular blockade. C: A Bispectral index of 60 measures depth of anesthesia, not paralysis level. D: CAM-ICU assesses delirium, not neuromuscular blockade.
Question 5 of 9
Which treatment can be used to dissolve a thrombus that is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombolytics. Thrombolytics are medications that can dissolve blood clots, making them effective in treating a thrombus lodged in the pulmonary artery. They work by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system. Aspirin (A) is an antiplatelet drug and may prevent further clot formation but cannot dissolve an existing thrombus. Embolectomy (B) is a surgical procedure to remove a clot and is invasive, usually reserved for cases where thrombolytics are contraindicated. Heparin (C) is an anticoagulant that prevents clot formation but does not dissolve existing clots like thrombolytics do.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: Abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature suggest a serious complication like visceral perforation. Step 2: Peritoneal dialysate return assessment won't address the potential life-threatening issue. Step 3: Checking blood sugar or evaluating neurological status is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Step 4: Informing the provider of probable visceral perforation is crucial for prompt intervention and further evaluation.
Question 7 of 9
What factors are common to both pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cyclical exacerbation of one another. Pain and anxiety can intensify each other in a cyclical manner. Pain can trigger anxiety, making the pain feel worse, and anxiety can heighten pain perception. This relationship is well-documented in research and clinical practice. Choice B is incorrect because although both pain and anxiety benefit from thorough nursing assessment, it is not a factor common to both conditions. Choice C is incorrect as both pain and anxiety can be influenced by real and perceived phenomena, not solely real phenomena. Choice D is incorrect because while previous experiences can impact pain and anxiety perception, it is not a factor common to both conditions.
Question 8 of 9
Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because breastfeeding helps stimulate the uterus to contract, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage in the mother. When the baby suckles at the breast, it triggers the release of oxytocin, a hormone that causes the uterus to contract. This contraction helps the uterus to return to its pre-pregnancy size and shape, promoting faster healing and reducing bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because lactation initiation is a separate process that involves hormonal changes and milk production, which may not occur immediately after delivery. Choice C is incorrect as bonding can occur through various interactions beyond breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as neonatal hypoglycemia is primarily prevented by ensuring the baby receives adequate nutrition, which can also be achieved through other feeding methods besides breastfeeding.
Question 9 of 9
The VALUE mnemonic is a helpful strategy to enhance communication with family members of critically ill patients. Which of the following statements describes a VALUE strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acknowledge family emotions. This is a key component of the VALUE strategy as it emphasizes empathy and understanding towards the emotions that family members may be experiencing during a difficult time. By acknowledging their emotions, healthcare providers can build trust and establish a supportive relationship with the family. Choice A is incorrect because the VALUE strategy focuses on treating family members as integral members of the care team, not just as guests. Choice C is incorrect as learning about family structure and function is important but not specifically part of the VALUE strategy. Choice D is incorrect as using a trained interpreter is important for effective communication but is not specific to the VALUE mnemonic.