ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
In assisting a physician to perform a thoracentesis to Mr. Sy, how should the nurse postion a patient with pleural effusion of the left lung?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: sitting at the side of the bed with both arms resting on a locked overbed table. This position allows for better lung expansion and easier access to the thoracic cavity during the procedure. Sitting position helps in maximizing lung volume and facilitates drainage of pleural effusion. Arms resting on a locked overbed table helps the patient maintain a stable position and reduces the risk of movement during the procedure. Other choices are incorrect because supine position (A) may not allow for optimal lung expansion, high fowler's position (C) may not provide easy access to the thoracic cavity, and semi-fowlers position (D) may not facilitate efficient drainage of pleural effusion.
Question 2 of 9
What is the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The potential complication. In a collaborative problem, the focus of a diagnostic statement should be on identifying any potential complications that may arise due to the client's condition or treatment. This allows nurses and other healthcare professionals to anticipate and address these complications proactively. A: The client problem - While important, the client problem is usually addressed in the nursing diagnosis rather than the diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. C: The nursing diagnosis - The nursing diagnosis focuses on the actual or potential health problems that the client is experiencing, which is different from the focus of a diagnostic statement for a collaborative problem. D: The medical diagnosis - The medical diagnosis is the identification of a disease or condition by a healthcare provider, which is not the focus when identifying potential complications in a collaborative problem.
Question 3 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor a client to ensure that the venous access device remains in the vein during a transfusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It minimizes the risk of circulatory overload. When a venous access device dislodges during a transfusion, there is a risk of the infusion going into the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to circulatory overload. This can result in fluid overload and potentially lead to serious complications such as heart failure. Monitoring the device ensures that the medication is delivered safely and effectively into the bloodstream. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein. C: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of pulmonary complications, which are not typically associated with a dislodged venous access device. D: Monitoring the device does not directly minimize the risk of localized edema embolism, which is a blockage caused by a blood clot, air bubble, or other material in a blood vessel.
Question 4 of 9
Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ease the patient to the floor. This is the first step because it helps prevent injury during a seizure. Lowering the patient to the floor prevents falls and protects the patient's head. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B can cause injury or obstruct the airway, choice C involves unnecessary movement, and choice D can lead to further harm or injury. It is crucial to prioritize safety and prevent harm during a seizure episode.
Question 5 of 9
How can the nurse help monitor effectiveness of therapy for the patient with a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate lung sounds. By auscultating lung sounds, the nurse can assess for changes in breath sounds which can indicate improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition. This helps monitor the effectiveness of therapy for a pneumothorax and chest-drainage system. Palpating for crepitus (A) is not directly related to monitoring therapy effectiveness. Documenting sputum color and amount (B) is important but does not specifically monitor therapy effectiveness. Monitoring suction level (D) is crucial but does not directly assess the patient's response to therapy.
Question 6 of 9
When caring for an anxious patient with dyspnea, which of the ff. nursing actions is most helpful to include in the plan of care to relieve anxiety?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Staying at patient's bedside. This is the most helpful nursing action because it provides reassurance and support to the anxious patient experiencing dyspnea. By staying at the bedside, the nurse can monitor the patient closely, provide immediate assistance if needed, and offer a calming presence. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Increasing activity levels may worsen the dyspnea and anxiety of the patient. B: Pulling the privacy curtain does not directly address the patient's anxiety or dyspnea. D: Closing the patient's door may make the patient feel isolated and increase anxiety. In summary, staying at the patient's bedside is the most effective nursing action as it addresses both the physical and emotional needs of the anxious patient with dyspnea.
Question 7 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory acidosis. Aspirin can lead to respiratory acidosis due to its effect on the respiratory center in the brainstem. It causes hyperventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis initially, followed by respiratory acidosis as compensation mechanism fails. Weight gain is not a typical adverse reaction of aspirin. Fine motor tremors are not associated with aspirin therapy. Bilateral hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect of aspirin overdose, not prolonged therapy.
Question 8 of 9
Which antiparkinsonian drug is associated with the on-off phenomenon and the wearing-off effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Levodopa. Levodopa is associated with the on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect in Parkinson's disease treatment due to fluctuations in its effectiveness over time. The on-off phenomenon refers to sudden and unpredictable changes in motor function, while wearing-off effect occurs when the medication's effects diminish before the next dose. Amantadine (A) is not typically associated with these phenomena. Benztropine (C) is an anticholinergic used for tremors and rigidity. Pramixole (D) is a dopamine agonist that can cause dyskinesias but is not primarily linked to on-off or wearing-off effects.
Question 9 of 9
A client is diagnosed with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the stomach. The physician prescribes mitomycin (Mutamycin) with other chemotherapeutic agents for palliative treatment. How mitomycin does exert its cytotoxic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It inhibits deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. Mitomycin is an alkylating agent that works by cross-linking DNA, preventing DNA synthesis and leading to cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against rapidly dividing cells like cancer cells. Choice B, inhibiting ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis, is incorrect as mitomycin primarily targets DNA synthesis. Choice C, being cell cycle-phase specific, is incorrect as mitomycin affects cells in all phases of the cell cycle. Choice D, inhibiting protein synthesis, is incorrect because mitomycin's primary mode of action is on DNA replication, not protein synthesis.