ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
In assessing the sclera of a patient of African descent, which of the following would be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because people of African descent commonly have a pigmented layer near the outer canthus of the lower lid called the "plica semilunaris." This is a normal anatomical variation in this population. Yellow fatty deposits over the cornea (choice A) are not typical findings in this demographic. Yellow color of the sclera extending up to the iris (choice C) is not a characteristic feature. The presence of small brown macules on the sclera (choice D) is also not a common finding in individuals of African descent.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 3 of 9
The projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area are called the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: turbinates. Turbinates are bony projections in the nasal cavity that increase the surface area for the warming, humidifying, and filtering of inhaled air. Meatus (A) refers to the passages in the nasal cavity, not the projections. Septum (B) is the partition between the nostrils, not the projections. Kiesselbach's plexus (D) is a collection of blood vessels in the nasal septum, not the projections that increase surface area.
Question 4 of 9
During the assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting, the nurse notes the following: dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. This finding is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue indicate dehydration in the patient. Dehydration causes decreased saliva production, leading to dry mouth and tongue fissures. This is a common symptom of dehydration. The lack of moisture in the oral cavity can result in these physical signs. The other choices are incorrect because irritation by gastric juices typically presents with other symptoms, a normal oral condition would not show these specific findings, and side effects of nausea medication would not directly cause dry mucosa and deep fissures in the tongue. Therefore, the correct answer is A: dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
While assessing the tonsils of a 30-year-old, the nurse notes that they look involuted and granular, and appear to have deep crypts. What is the correct follow-up to these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nothing, this is the appearance of normal tonsils. In a 30-year-old, tonsils commonly appear involuted, granular, and have deep crypts due to natural aging and exposure to infections. This is considered a normal variant and does not typically require further intervention. Referral to a specialist (Option A) is unnecessary as these findings are within the normal range. Continuing the assessment (Option C) may not yield significant abnormal findings related to the tonsils. Throat culture for strep (Option D) is not indicated unless there are specific symptoms or signs of infection.
Question 6 of 9
A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red and circular with central clearing, and is located across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lyme disease. The presentation of a red circular rash with central clearing, known as erythema migrans, following a hiking trip in the summer is highly indicative of Lyme disease. The specific distribution of the rash across the midriff and behind the knees aligns with typical areas where the rash appears in Lyme disease cases. This rash is a hallmark sign of early Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Other answer choices are incorrect because rubeola presents with a different rash pattern, an allergy to mosquito bites would not typically present in this manner, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever typically presents with a different rash appearance and distribution.
Question 7 of 9
A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa so far this season and wants to know how to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops help to maintain the pH balance in the ear canal, making it less conducive to bacterial growth. 2. These eardrops also help to dry out excess moisture, reducing the risk of otitis externa. 3. By using these eardrops after every swim, the student can prevent the recurrence of otitis externa. Summary of other choices: A: Using a cotton-tipped swab can push wax deeper into the ear canal, increasing the risk of infection. C: Irrigating the ears can introduce water into the ear canal, potentially worsening the condition. D: Mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on the delicate skin of the ear canal, causing irritation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: damage to the trigeminal nerve. Trigeminal nerve damage can result in the inability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations on the face. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. Bell's palsy (choice A) affects facial muscles, not sensory perception. Frostbite (choice C) typically causes numbness rather than loss of sensation discrimination. Scleroderma (choice D) is a connective tissue disorder that does not directly affect sensory perception on the face.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.