ATI RN
Assess Vital Signs Questions
Question 1 of 5
In assessing a 70-year-old man, the nurse finds the following: blood pressure 140/100 mm Hg; heart rate 104 beats per minute and slightly irregular; and the split S2 heart sound. Which of these findings can be explained by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Increase in systolic blood pressure Rationale: 1. Age-related vascular changes lead to decreased arterial compliance. 2. Decreased arterial compliance results in increased systolic blood pressure. 3. This explains the elevated systolic blood pressure in the 70-year-old man. Other Choices: A. Increase in resting heart rate - Not typically age-related; may indicate other issues. C. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure - Usually remains stable or slightly increases with age. D. Increase in diastolic blood pressure - Not a common age-related change; may indicate other underlying conditions.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the blood supply to the arm. The major artery supplying the arm is the _____ artery.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Brachial artery. The brachial artery is the major artery supplying the arm, running from the shoulder to the elbow. It is a continuation of the axillary artery and provides blood to the entire arm. The ulnar and radial arteries are branches of the brachial artery, supplying the forearm and hand. The deep palmar artery is a branch of the radial artery, supplying the palm of the hand. Therefore, the brachial artery is the correct choice as it is the main artery directly supplying the arm.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is attempting to assess the femoral pulse in a patient who is obese. Which of these actions would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because asking the patient to bend their knees to the side in a froglike position helps to expose the femoral pulse in an obese patient. This position allows better access to the femoral artery, making it easier to palpate the pulse accurately. By bending the knees to the side, the nurse can avoid excess tissue and adipose obstruction, facilitating a more accurate assessment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Asking the patient to assume a prone position would not be helpful in locating the femoral pulse as it does not provide better access to the artery. C: Firmly pressing against the bone in a semi-Fowler position may not improve the assessment of the femoral pulse in an obese patient. D: Listening with a stethoscope for pulsations is not the preferred method for assessing the femoral pulse; palpating the pulse is the standard practice, even in obese individuals.
Question 4 of 5
Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Associated manifestations. Associated manifestations refer to other symptoms or signs that accompany the primary symptom. In this case, the primary symptom is abdominal pain, and the description provided focuses solely on the characteristics of the pain itself (location, intensity, duration, aggravating factors), omitting any mention of other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, fever, or jaundice that may be present with certain conditions. By not including information about associated manifestations, the description lacks a complete picture of the symptom presentation, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the description does cover the setting in which the symptom occurs (after eating greasy foods), the quality of the pain (dull ache), and the timing of the pain (2 to 3 hours after eating).
Question 5 of 5
A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hair colour. The rationale for this is that fair skin, family history of melanoma, freckles, and heavy sun exposure are all known risk factors for melanoma. Reddish-blonde hair alone is not a significant risk factor for melanoma compared to the other mentioned factors. Age is a risk factor as melanoma incidence increases with age. Actinic lentigines, also known as sunspots, are associated with chronic sun exposure and are a risk factor for melanoma. Heavy sun exposure is a well-established risk factor for melanoma due to the damaging effects of UV radiation on the skin.